The Help Desk at the Cargo Complex has been introduced by AAI to facilitate users of cargo terminal in resolving their day to day problems / complaints / grievances expeditiously at the airports. The grievances can be addressed in writing to the In-charge at Air Cargo Complex(s) or Airport Director for prompt action and appropriate reply by AAI therein.

In case undue delay is experienced by any customer, the concerned duty officer (available on round-the-clock), may be contacted for redressal of grievance/complaint. Acknowledgement of written complaint within 2 working days and respond to such communications within 15 working days of its receipt.

Provide complaint registers with the Duty Officers and suggestion boxes at conspicuous places at all Cargo Terminals.

Officials at the AAI Managed airports may be contacted on normal working hours for registering complaints/grievances for contact details please refer : http://aaiclas-ecom.org/

In case of non-redressal of grievances/complaints, the office of Executive Director (Cargo)/General Manager (Cargo) at Hqrs, Delhi, may be contacted at 
Tel. No. 011-24657930/24657919, FAX No. 24657929.

Any exporter/importer/Customs House Agents/Airlines etc. who wish to transact electronically with AAI, would be mandatory required to get register with AAI at http://aaiclas-ecom.org Registration is mandatory for Message Exchange activities also.

Registration Process:
User has to fill up the physical registration form along with relevant documents and submit to Airports Authority of India (AAI). AAI would ascertain the correctness of the details submitted. Users are requested to fill valid E-Mail address and Phone Number(s) in Registration form to enable AAI to perform further communications regarding User ID and Password allocation. Users are requested to immediately change the password(s) assigned by AAI.
Non Registered Users are not restricted from functionalities pertaining to Consignment Status, Charges Calculation Estimate Sheet and Cargo Procedures. Same features are available for registered users. In addition, Registered Users enjoy the privilege of accessing functionalities related to Printing of Charge related Documents, Payment transactions and Pre- Deposit account related statements.

Please refer http://aaiclas-ecom.org/ for schedule of charges.

12 hours free period is allowed to the exporter to process/hand over the customs cleared export cargo to the custodian at the cargo terminal. While the imported goods can be cleared within 48 hours from the time of arrival without payment of any demurrage charges.

Import General Cargo Clearance Procedure-

Import Cargo Operation Timings

 


Q.1(b) What is the procedure for clearance of human remains in import?

AAI cargo service charges can be paid through Pre-Deposit Account (PDA) or through electronic mode in case of commercial cargo while cash / Demand Draft is only acceptable in case of unaccompanied baggage.

All applications along with relevant documents for waiver of demurrage charges shall be submitted within 15 calendar days from the date the 'Passed out of charge' is issued by customs authorities. However, delay beyond 15 days for submission and upto 30 days would be considered by APD/GM(Cargo) & M(Ops) respectively with the reason for condonation of delay and local finance concurrence.
AAI has provisions for waiving demurrage charges accrued on export/import cargo, in deserving cases, as per laid down policy approved by the AAI Board. Salient features of the policy are as under:-

Acknowledge request of waiver submitted by hand, on the spot.

Process waiver applications within 15 days if within local powers, and 30 days in respect of cases referred to AAI Hqrs. where-ever all the relevant documents required are furnished along with applications.

Application for Waiver/Remission of demurrage charges to be made by the consignee/shipper within 15 days after the consignment is passed “Out of Charge” or “Let Export Order” by� the Customs, to the Airport Director/ G.M.(Cargo)/Dy. General Manager(Cargo), AAI, at the respective airports. It should be accompanied with legible photocopies of relevant documents such as AWB, Bill of Entry (with Customs Examination Report, Pass “out of charge” etc.), Shipping Bill, Detention Certificate of statutory authority , if any.

The consignee/shipper can also make an Appeal to the AAI Appellate Authority for reconsideration of the order passed.

Copy of waiver policy is available with In-charge of Cargo Dept., AAI and on the website of AAI.

Refers to the low-density cargo for which the transportation charges are based on cubic dimensions of the shipment rather than upon actual gross weight. The Cubic volume of a consignment is established by applying the greatest length, the greatest width and the greatest height of the consignment or its packages. In such cases the charges are established on the basis that each 6,000 cubic centimeter/366 cubic inches equal one kilogram.

After AAI publishes in all the leading national newspapers of English / Hindi / vernacular language about the date of display of unclaimed/uncleared goods which are ripe for disposal followed with public auction. Where successful bidders are free to bid and deposit 33.33% instantly at the fall of hammer. The detailed guidelines are given in the Auction sale lists available before auction date as notified in the notification published in the newspaper.AAI is also conducting e-auction of unclaimed/unclared goods at Kolkata and Chennai Airports, U/s 48 of Customs Act-1962

AAI has created infrastructure / facilities viz. State of the art Centre for Perishable Cargo, Live Animal Shed, Strong Room, Hazardous Cargo shed, Wire mesh for vulnerable cargo, etc. to take care of special cargo.

Check sheet for processing of cargo claim in case of damage/pilferage/theft;
STEPS:

Claim cases received from the consignee / Consignors by AAI is registered in the claim register kept in the Cargo Administration Section.

Following documents should be attached with the claim application by the applicant :- Copy of AWB / HAWB, Copy of invoice, Copy of packing list, Copy of segregation report where applicable, Copy of Bill of Entry, Joint Survey Report, Claim Bill, Weight of Loss / Damage of package of consignment along with documentary proof, Application of FIR. 

Verification of following information is done through the Computer System; IGM NO, FLT NO., FLT DATE., IWR NO., AWB NO. / AWB NO., NO. OF PC?s., WEIGHT, NATURE OF GOODS, LOCATION, REMARKS, STATUS.

iv) Status of the cargo, whether the same is received in good condition or damaged or short landed or in wet condition is obtained through the system or from the IGM Set/ Segregation Report. 

In the cargo is received in damaged condition then a letter to consignee to this effect is sent accordingly. 

In respect of cases, where the cargo is received in good condition and damage occurred when the cargo was in the custody of AAI a claim is lodged with our underwriters for taking further necessary action. However, facilitation is ensured by allowing for survey at AAI premises & witnessing thereof. 

In respect of cases, where prima facie case was adjudged, a provisional claims can be registered with the under writers of AAI. The claimant is requested for furnishing relevant documents for processing the case. 

In respect of cases where all the relevant documents were made available by the claimants. Formal claim is lodged with the underwriter of AAI. 

If the claim is settled by our underwriters then the message is passed on to the claimant and in turn they have to produce a letter stating that they have not preferred any claim from their underwriters. (letter of subrogation). 

The claim cases which is settled by the under writers by giving cheque to us is sent to the Accounts Department for releasing the amount to the claimant accordingly.

The cargo terminal is a restricted area, however, the bona fide user(s) by producing documentary evidence viz. relevant documents for transacting air cargo business / transaction can gain access to the cargo terminal with valid Airport Entry Permit / Visitor pass issued by the designated official(s) of Security Department. The pax are required to show relevant Air Waybill and Passport for gaining entrance / entry pass while clearing their Unaccompanied Baggage.

The AAI cargo terminals at Chennai and Kolkata Airports are transacting business on 24 x 7 basis.

 

The penalties for various offences/violations done by the users of the cargo terminal are as under:

Any other offence / violation, not covered above, shall attract a maximum penal action of Rs.500.00 subject to a minimum of Rs.100.00 per instance with the approval of Head / In-charge of Cargo Department.

Indian Aviation Academy 
Indian Aviation Academy also known by its acronym as IAA, is a premier training institute and a joint Training Academy of Airports Authority of India, BCAS & DGCA, established in the year 2009. It imparts training in all disciplines of airport management i.e. airport operations, airport engineering construction, maintenance / project management, airport finance, human resource management, airport commercial /Land Management, Aviation law, and Cargo Management, Aviation Safety & Security. It is an IATA accredited Training School for imparting DGR training course and IATA authorized Training Centre for Basic Cargo Introductory course

NOTAM are classified as per :-
(1) According to Distribution 
a) NOTAM - Distribution by means of telecommunication or AFTN. 
b) AIP Supplement - Distribution by means other than telecommunication or AFTN, such as messenger or postal services.

 

(2) According to Series 
a) Concern to long or medium range flights, and given selected international distribution; 
b) Full information on all airports, facilities and procedures available for use in international civil aviation, and given international distribution to adjacent states only; 
c) Information of concern to aircraft other than those engaged in international civil aviation, and given national distribution only;
s) - Presence of removal of hazardous conditions due to snow, slush, or ice on aerodrome pavements or standing water associated with these conditions. 

OLMET, or meteorological information for aircraft in flight, is the term applied to a worldwide network of radio stations that broadcast TAF (Terminal Area Forecast). TAF is a format for reporting weather forecast information relating to aviation applying to five statute mile radius from the centre of the airport runway complex), SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information, is a weather advisory that contains meteorological information concerning the safety of all aircraft) and METAR (format for reporting weather information) reports on shortwave frequencies. In some countries, VOLMET stations broadcast on VHF frequencies too.

following information is promulgated by Notam:

  1. Establishment, withdrawal and significant changes in operation of aeronautical services;
  2. Establishment, closure or significant changes in operation of aerodrome(s) or runways;
  3. Establishment or withdrawal of electronic and other aids to air navigation and aerodromes;
  4. Establishment, withdrawal or significant changes made to visual aids;
  5. Interruption of or return to operation of major components of aerodrome lighting systems;
  6. Establishment, withdrawal or significant changes made to procedures for air navigation services;
  7. Occurrence or correction of major defects or impediments in the maneuvering area;
  8. Changes to and limitations on availability of fuel, oil and oxygen;
  9. Major changes to search and rescue facilities and services available;
  10. Establishment, withdrawal or return to operation of hazard beacons marking significant obstacles to air navigation;
  11. Changes in regulations requiring immediate action;
  12. Presence of hazards which affect air navigation (including obstacles, military exercises, displays, races, major parachuting events outside promulgated sites);
  13. Erecting, removal of or changes to significant obstacles to air navigation in the take-off/climb, missed approach, approach areas and runway strip;
  14. Establishment or discontinuance (including activation or deactivation) as applicable, or changes in the status of prohibited, restricted or danger areas;
  15. Establishment or discontinuance of areas or routes or portions thereof where the possibility of interception exists and where the maintenance of guard on the VHF emergency frequency 121.5 MHz is required;
  16. changes in hazardous conditions due to snow, slush, ice or water on the movement area;
  17. Outbreaks of epidemics necessitating changes in notified requirements for inoculations and quarantine measures;
  18. Forecasts of solar cosmic radiation, where provided;
  19. Occurrence of pre- eruption volcanic activity, the location, date and time of volcanic eruptions and the existence, density and extent of volcanic ash cloud, including direction of movement, flight levels and routes or portions of routes which could affected;
  20. �Release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals following a nuclear or chemical incident, the location, date and time of the incident, the flight levels and routes or portions thereof which could be affected and the direction of movement.

NOTAM or Notice to Airmen are notices distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
 

DVTR is a medium/instrument used to real time record various voice communications used by Air Traffic controllers and other personnel in support for Air Traffic Management and provides evidence for incident or accident investigations. The media has evolved from analog magnetic tape to digital media, engineers adapted magnetic tape technology to digital recording, producing digital reel- to-reel magnetic tape machines. Before large hard disks became economical enough to make hard disk recorders viable, studio digital recording meant recording on digital tape. 

 

VCCS controls and connects together various voice communication systems used for Air Traffic Management such as VHF Tx/RX, telephone, and other ATC communications. It also provides an internetworked chain & backbone for numerous interfaces acting as an exchange for all the interfaces put together. It works on various IT protocols customized for each set of facility.


Communication, Navigation and Surveillance are three main functions (domains) which constitute the foundation of Air Traffic Management (ATM) infrastructure.
The following provide further details about relevant domains of CNS: 

(a) Communication:- Communication is the exchange of voice and data information between the pilot and air traffic controllers or flight information centres.

(b) Navigation:- Navigation Element Of CNS/ATM Systems Is meant To provide Accurate, Reliable And Seamless Position Determination Capability to aircrafts.

(c) Surveillance:- The surveillance systems can be divided into two main types:- Dependent surveillance and Independent surveillance. In dependent surveillance systems, aircraft position is determined on board and then transmitted to ATC. The current voice position reporting is a dependent surveillance systems in which the position of the aircraft is determined from on-board navigation equipment and then conveyed by the pilot to ATC. Independent surveillance is a system which measures aircraft position from the ground. Current surveillance is either based on voice position reporting or based on radar (primary surveillance radar (PSR) or secondary surveillance radar (SSR)) which measures range and azimuth of aircraft from the ground station.

CNS/ATM stands for Communications, Navigation and Surveillance Systems for Air Traffic Management. The system uses various systems including satellite systems, and varying levels of automation to achieve a seamless global Air Traffic Management system.

Airports Authority of India (AAI) is responsible for providing CNS/ATM services in India.

The Departments of CNS acts as the nodal agency in AAI to carry out its designated functions of looking after Aeronautical Telecommunication facilities (I.e. CNS/ATM Automation systems) in AAI.

CNS Departments in AAI are:- 
(a) CNS-Operation and Maintenance ( CNS- O&M)
(b) CNS- Planning (CNS- P)
(c) Flight Inspection Unit & Radio construction and Development Units ( FIU & RCDU)

Directorate of CNS-Operation & Maintenance [CNS-OM] at CHQ is headed by Executive Director [CNS-OM]. ED [CNS-OM] reports to Member [ANS].
Broad functions/job profile of CNS-OM Department is as given below:
1. The Communication, Navigation, Surveillance and ATM Data Processing systems are the backbone for provision of Air Traffic Services for safe and smooth operation of Aircraft at Airports and in Indian airspace. CNS-OM Directorate ensures provision of these facilities for their serviceability, reliability and integrity as per Standard and Recommended practices of ICAO, Civil Aviation Requirements (CARs) promulgated by DGCA, to support CNS/ATM system for continental and Oceanic airspace managed by India as mentioned above. CNS-OM Dept also have the responsibility for maintenance and operation of security systems (i.e. CCTV, XBIS, DFMD, HHMD, ETD etc.)_and passenger facilitation system (i.e Flight Information Display system, PA system etc.) installed at all the airports which are managed by AAI. The security systems are maintained as per BCAS guidelines. 

2. CNS-OM Dept by framing maintenance policies and supervision systems delivers system management, maintenance standards/instructions and maintenance services to assure and ensure Serviceability, Availability and Reliability of systems as mentioned above.

3. Provision of Aeronautical Mobile Services, Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network, VOLMET, Pre Flight Com Briefing and International Notam Offices

4. Provision of Telecom infrastructure (Datacom, Telephones, Fax & Mobile etc.) to various AAI Units for operational and administrative requirements.

5. Other main functions of CNS- OM Dept are :-

5.1 Management of CNS Human Resources including:- 
Deployment 
Training 
Placement
Proficiency 

5.2 Coordination with DGCA/ICAO for issue related to CNS and amendment to ICAO Annex/documents related to CNS.
5.3 Coordination with National Regulator, WPC and ICAO for Civil Aviation Frequency requirements/Protection.
5.4 CNS Standardization & Procedures
5.5 Preparing replacement and up gradation proposal of CNS and ATM Data processing system.
5.6 Implementation of Safety Management System (SMS) related to CNS and Automation facilities.
5.7 Disposal of obsolete CNS facilities proposal received at CHQ from filed stations.

6. CNS-OM Dept is further divided into following five sections:
i) A & S (Automation & Surveillance)
ii) N&CMC (Navigation & Central Maintenance Cell)
iii) COM (Communication)
iv) CRSD (Central Radio Stores Depot)
v) FTI (Future Telecommunication Infrastructure)

I) Automation and Surveillance (A &S) 
Regular Monitoring of Availability & Serviceability of Surveillance, ATM Automation facilities at all airports and Aeronautical Communication Stations. Human Resource Management, Training and proficiency of CNS Personnel.Regular Monitoring of Availability & Serviceability of Surveillance, ATM Automation facilities at all airports and Aeronautical Communication Stations. Human Resource Management, Training and proficiency of CNS Personnel.

II) Navigation and Central Maintenance Cell (N&CMC)
Regular Monitoring of Availability & Serviceability of Navigational Aids. Review of NOC cases from CNS point of view received in CNS-OM Dept. DGCA & ICAO Matters. CMC manages SMUs (Special Maintenance Unit) which are established for different CNS equipment for complex component level repairs of faulty modules received from different stations. At present SMUs are available at Delhi, Kolkata, Ahmedabad, Chennai, Hyderabad and Mumbai airports for different CNS/ATM Automation facilities. 

III) Communication (Com) 
Regular Monitoring of Availability & Serviceability of Communication systems at all Airports/ACS. Provision of Aeronautical Mobile Services, Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network, VOLMET, Pre Flight Com Briefing and International Notam Offices. Provision of Telephones, Fax & Mobile to various AAI Units for operational and administrative requirements 

IV) Central Radio Stores Depot (CRSD)
The Central Radio Stores Depot procures and stocks Spares / PCBs/ Modules/ Discreet Components of CNS equipment and provides them to the stations to ensure the availability of CNS facilities. CRSD also arranges custom clearance, Overseas & In-Land insurance and Re-Export of faulty systems during guarantee/warranty Of CNS Equipment being procured by Dte. Of CNS-P and forwarding of same to the consignees. 

V) FTI: 
FTI is responsible for creation of Telecom Infrastructure with the help of Managed Service Provider (MSP) on Build, Own & Operate model. Augmentation of Ground to Ground/Air to Ground communication infrastructure, provision of SLA (Service Level Agreement) based telecom services across PAN-India regions covering Voice, Data & Video applications. Implementation of Aviation System Block Upgrade (ASBU) under one sky policy of ICAO.

AAI induct personnel with technical background at various levels in CNS discipline. Besides Employment News, the recruitment advertisements are published in reputed National and Regional newspapers. For more information, detail requirements and vacancies please visit AAI website "www.aai.aero" under the head "carriers" regularly.

The recognized terminology as per ICAO DOC 7192 for personnel involved in the maintenance and installation of CNS/ATM system is Air Traffic Safety Electronics Personnel (ATSEP).

Various services provided are:- 
1) Aeronautical Radio Navigation Service
2) Aeronautical Mobile Service
3) Aeronautical Fixed Service
4) Aeronautical Information Service
5)�Aeronautical Broadcast Service etc. 
 

Training for CNS Personnel is held at Civil Aviation Training College (CATC) Allahabad and 04 Regional Training Canters (RTCs) located at Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata Airports. 

The different Radio navigational aids are:- 
(i) NDB/Locators
(ii) VOR; CVOR or DVOR
(iii) DME
(iv) ILS
(v) Markers 

NDB is a standard International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) ground based radio navigational aid. NDB are used by aircraft to help obtain a fix of their geographic location on the surface of the Earth. NDBs are also most commonly used as "locators" for an instrument landing system (ILS) approach and standard approaches.

DVOR Stands for Doppler Very High Frequency Omni Range. DVOR is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) ground based radio navigational aid that provides bearing information to aircraft to define air traffic control routes for en-route, terminal and instrument approach/departure procedures. DVOR when collocated with DME (Distance Measuring Instrument) provides both the angle and slant distance of aircraft with respect to ground station. 

DME stands for Distance Measuring Instrument. DME is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) ground based radio navigational aid that provides slant distance information to aircraft with respect to ground station to define air traffic control routes for en-route, terminal and instrument approach/departure procedures. DME is normally collocated with DVOR or ILS/Glide Path and sometimes with NDB also.

ILS stands for Instrument Landing System and is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid that is used to provide accurate azimuth and descent guidance signals for guidance to aircraft for landing on the runway under normal or adverse weather conditions. Instrument landing system (ILS) facility is a highly accurate and dependable means of navigating to the runway in IFR conditions. The ILS provides the lateral and vertical guidance necessary to fly a precision approach. When all components of the ILS system are available, including the approved approach procedure, the pilot may execute a precision approach. 

The ILS consists of: -

  1. Localizer:- The primary component of the ILS is the localizer, which provides lateral guidance. The transmitter and antenna (Shown above) are on the centreline at the opposite end of the runway from the approach threshold.
  2. Glide Path:- The glide path component of ILS �provides vertical guidance to the pilot during the approach. Glide path �is located 750 to 1,250 feet (ft) down the runway from the threshold (shown above), offset 400 to 600 ft from the runway centre line.
  3. Markers:-
    (i) Outer marker; (OM): The outer marker (if installed) is located 3 1/2 to 6 NM from the threshold within 250 ft of the extended runway centreline to provide the pilot with the ability to make a positive position fix on the localizer.

    (ii) MIDDLE MARKER (MM): The middle marker ( if installed) is located approximately 0.5 to 0.8 NM from the threshold on the extended runway centerline. The middle marker crosses the glide slope at approximately 200 to 250 ft above the runway elevation.
  4. DME : Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is normally collocated with glide path and provides slant distance to the aircraft with respect to touch down point.
  5. The approach lighting system:-Various runway lighting systems serve as integral parts of the ILS system to aid the pilot in landing. Any or all of the following lighting systems may be provided at a given facility: approach light system (ALS), sequenced flashing light (SFL), touchdown zone lights (TDZ) and centerline lights (CLL-required for Category II & III operations.)�
  6. RUNAWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR) : In order to land, the pilot must be able to see appropriate visual aids not later than the arrival at the decision height (DH) or the missed approach point (MAP).

For suitably equipped aircraft, different ILS Facility Performance categories are mentioned as below:- 
(i) Cat I Operation: A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 60m (200ft) and with either a visibility not less than 800m or a runway visual range not less than 550m.
(ii) Cat II Operation: A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30 m (100ft) and a runway visual range not less than 350m.
(iii) Cat III Operation: Different CAT III operation are further subdivided into:-
(a) CAT IIIA Operation: A precision instrument approach and landing with :- 
   a) a decision height t lower than 30m (100ft) , or no decision height; and
   b) a runway visual range not less than 200m.
(b) Cat IIIB Operation: A precision instrument approach and landing with :-
   a) decision height t lower than 15m (50ft), or no decision height; and
   b) runway visual range less than 200 m not less than 50m. 
(c) Cat IIIC Operation: A precision instrument approach and landing with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations. 

ICAO's Performance Based Navigation (PBN) Concept specifies system performance requirements for aircraft operating agencies along an ATS route, or on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.

A world wide system of aeronautical fixed circuits provided, as part of the aeronautical fixed service, for the exchange of messages and/or digital data between aeronautical fixed stations having the same or compatible communications characteristics.

The Aeronautical Telecommunication Network (ATN) comprises application entities and communication services which allow ground, air-to-ground and avionics data sub networks to interoperate. This is done by adopting common interface services and protocols based on International Standards. ATN is designed with four major elements. The first element is the ability to transfer data to an aircraft without sender knowledge of the aircraft location (network mobility). The second major element is the ability to simultaneously use the multiple air/ground links that are installed in an aircraft. This requires applications to specify cost, link, or speed preferences, which are used by the ATN when forwarding data. The third element is the ability to account for the low bandwidth air/ground data links available today and in the near future. Low bandwidth air/ground links require the use of data compression. The fourth element is the standardization of the services required by ATS applications (i.e., transport, session, presentation, and application functions) and the applications themselves, so that they are the same worldwide.
 

ADS (Automatic Dependent Surveillance) is a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on- board navigation and position- fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate. �ADS data is displayed to the controller on a screen that resembles a radar screen.
CPDLC (Controller Pilot Data Link Communications) is a means of communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications). CPDLC is a two -way data-link system by which controllers can transmit messages to the pilot without the use of voice communications. The message is displayed on a flight deck visual display. CPDLC is an essential element of Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)
Several different forms of ADS are currently in use or under development, including:
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)  is a function on an aircraft or surface vehicle that broadcasts position, altitude, vector and other information for use by other aircraft, vehicles and by ground facilities. It has become the main application of the ADS principle.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Contract (ADS-C)  functions similarly to ADS-B but the data is transmitted based on a contract between a ground system and an aircraft: Demand contract, periodic contract, event contract and emergency contract. This application is most likely to find application to sparsely trafficked transcontinental or transoceanic crossings.
 

A mobile service between aeronautical stations and aircraft stations, or between aircraft stations, in which survival craft stations may participate; emergency position- indicating radio beacon stations may also participate in this service on designated distress and emergency frequencies.

  1. AMS may be further divided & defined into
  2. Aeronautical mobile (R) service An aeronautical mobile service reserved for communications relating to safety and regularity of flight, primarily along national or international civil air routes.
  3. Aeronautical mobile (OR) service 
    An aeronautical mobile service intended for communications, including those relating to flight coordination, primarily outside national or international civil air routes.
  4. Aeronautical mobile-satellite service 
    A mobile-satellite service in which mobile earth stations are located on board aircraft; survival craft stations and emergency position-indicating radiobeacon stations may also participate in this service.
  5. Aeronautical mobile-satellite (R) service 
    An aeronautical mobile- satellite service reserved for communications relating to safety and regularity of flights, primarily along national or international civil air routes.
  6. Aeronautical mobile-satellite (OR) service 
    An aeronautical mobile- satellite service intended for communications, including those relating to flight coordination, primarily outside national and international civil air routes.

PSR is primary Surveillance RadarPrimary radar is ? classical" radar which reflects all kind of echoes, including aircraft and clouds. A radio detection system that transmits short bursts (pulses) of RF energy and detects their echoes from objects (targets) such as aircraft or ships. The round - trip propagation time  for the echo return may be used to determine the target's range (distance from the radar's antenna). This type of radar (now called primary radar) can detect and report the position of anything that reflects its transmitted radio signals including, depending on its design, aircraft, birds, weather and land features.

A Surveillance radar system which uses transmitters/receivers (interrogators) & transponders, detects and measures the position of aircraft but also requests additional information from the aircraft itself such as its identity and altitude. SSR relies on its targets being equipped with a radar transponder, which replies to each interrogation signal by transmitting its own response containing encoded data. SSR is based on the military identification friend or foe (IFF) technology originally developed during World War II. The transponder is a radio receiver and transmitter which receives on one frequency (1090 MHz) and transmits on another (1030 MHz). The target aircraft's transponder replies to signals from an interrogator (usually, but not necessarily, a ground station co- located with a primary radar) by transmitting a coded reply signal containing the requested information. An SSR continuously transmits interrogation pulses (selectively rather than continuously in Mode-4, Mode-5, and Mode-S) as its antenna rotates, or is electronically scanned in space. A transponder on an aircraft that is within line-of-sight range 'listens' for the SSR interrogation signal and sends back a reply that provides aircraft information.
 

Mono-pulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) is an improved version of the classic SSR. Due to the problem of Garbling and the False Replies Unsynchronized with the Interrogation Transmissions or simply FRUIT, MSSR was developed.

The DGCA (Web site ?dgca.nic.in?) is the designated agency of Govt. of India under the Ministry of Civil Aviation for making regulations, procedures and issuing directions covering the Aeronautical Telecommunication facilities (I.e. CNS/ATM Automation facilities) . Their instructions are to be complied with both by the Air Navigation Service Provider (ANSPs), airlines and the airports.
 

Northern Region
Eastern Region
North East Region

Regional Executive Director
Airports Authority of India,
Operational Offices Complex Rangpuri,
IGI Airport -110 037
Tel: (O) : 25652343/ 25654212, (fax): 25656451
E-mail : red_nr@aai.aero

Regional Executive Director
Airports Authority of India,
NSCBI Airport -700 052
Tel: (O) : 033 2511 9616 / 033 2511 9944, Fax: 033 2511 8873
E-mail : reder@aai.aero

Regional Executive Director (NER)
Airports Authority of India, LGB International Airport
Guwahati - 781 015
Telephone : 0361-2840223 (O), Fax : 0361-2840042
E-mail : redner@aai.aero

Western Region:
Southern Region:
 

Regional Executive Director (WR)
Porta Cabins, New Airport Colony,
Opposite Hanuman Road,
Vile Parle East
Mumbai-400099.
Contact nos. Tel. no. 022-28300606, Fax no. 022-28300606
E-mail: redwr@aai.aero

Regional Executive Director (SR)
Airports Authority of India
ATS Complex, 
Chennai Airport 
Chennai- 600 027 
Phone: 91-44-22561234; 91-44-22561515 Extn 4300
Fax: 91-44-22561010 
E-Mail: redsr@aai.aero

 

AAI has Project Monitoring & Quality Assurance (PMQA) Cell that ensure the quality of works. Projects are also selected for inspection by Chief Technical Examiner Organization under central vigilance commission. CTE type inspections are also carried out by vigilance directorate of AAI in house.

he path for search of tender on AAI website is under
Login to the following website: www.aai.aero or www.airportsindia.org.in - tender search.

The Engineering Directorate is responsible for construction and maintenance of 87 Civil Airports and 28 Civil Enclaves in the country. The functions of Engg Directorate are: 

  1. Main task of Engineering Directorate is to plan design and implement development works with the sole purpose of providing maximum passenger comfort and conveniences. Engineering Wing has been successful in implementing airport projects of big magnitude which include construction of new airport capable of handling jet/wide bodied aircraft. Engineering also maintains airport facilities at all airport.
  2. Design and execution of airfield pavement i.e Runways. Aprons, Taxi track shoulders etc. Complying with international Civil Aviation organization requirements.
  3. Contract management, Project Planning, Scheduling and Monitoring.
  4. Maintenance of Operational Runways, apron and Taxi-track.
  5. Designing of various airports services.
  6. Maintenance and upkeep of Passengers Terminal, Car-parking and associated road network within AAI?s land.
  7. Plan, provide, operate and maintain E&M services at Airport such as Aero-bridges, Escalators, Elevators, Baggage Conveyors, Air conditioning systems etc.
  8. Plan, provide, operate and maintain aeronautical ground lighting sysem including Apron Flood Lighting system.
  9. Creating Power Supply infrastructure to feed all Airport installation including Communication & Navigational Aids.
  10. Plan, Provide Operate and maintain Solar Power Obstruction Lighting System.
Generally works are awarded after call of open competitive tenders through press advertisement of tender notice in leading news papers as well as by uploading the same in AAI website. The address of AAI website is www.aai.aero or www.airportsindia.org.in.

 

No, AAI does not have system for enlisting the contractors. The applicants, who are satisfying the qualifying requirements of AAI's Notice Inviting Tender (NIT), can quote or apply for a particular work.

Tender notice is issued in leading news papers and same is also published in AAI's website. [Open tender for a particular work through wide publicity in leading news papers. Details of these NIT are also available in AAI website].

No, AAI does not have such mechanism to provide tender information through e-mailYou can see the tender information in AAI website only.

Yes, in selective cases AAI is following e-tendering. However, in near future e-tendering process shall be implemented for all tenders.

It is located in New Delhi and following is the complete address:- 
Airports Authority of India,
Corporate Headquarter,
Rajiv Gandhi Bhawan,
Safdarjung Airport,
New Delhi - 110003
Phone: 011 24632950.

Directorate of Engineering:- Elevators, Escalators, Baggage Handling System, PBB, Ground Lighting System, Substation Equipment, DG Sets, Fire fighting & Detection System, PA System, HVAC System, Internal & External lighting System, Signage and Civil construction material etc.
Directorate of CNS (Planning):-Navigational Aids and associated infrastructure.
Directorate of Operation:- Bird control/commercial activities, MESS (Mechanized Environment Support Services).
Directorate of Equipment:- Equipment such as fire tenders, Runway sweeper, Trolleys, furniture for terminal building.

Engineering Directorate is headed by 3(three) Executive Directors(Engg) who report to Member(Planning). Brief division of works of Executive Directors (Engg) is as under:

In order to make its business mechanism more transparent and to ensure the strict adherence of transparency objectives Authority is implementing the Integrity Pact Program in cooperation with Transparency International India (hereinafter referred as TII), an India chapter of a renowned International Non-Governmental Organization (NGO) Transparency International headquartered in Berlin (Germany), which has developed Integrity Pact that ensures that all activities and transactions between a company or government department and their suppliers are handled in a fair, transparent and corruption free manner, as a part of this initiative Authority in consultation with External Independent Monitor (EIM), implement the Integrity Pact Program.

Yes, AAI is implementing Integrity Pact w.e.f 01.04.2008 for the works costing more than Rs. 25.0 Crore.

Chairman, Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the authority to appoint External Independent Monitor(s) to oversee effective implementation of Integrity Pact. For this purpose, a panel of Monitors is constituted by the Authority in concurrence with Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC). The Monitors will have status / similar to those of Board Members of AAI.

CHQ handles the schemes costing Rs, 5.0 Crores and above and RHQ handle the schemes costing less than Rs, 5.0 Crores.

Generally qualifying requirements of contractor /firms for participating in AAI?s tenders other than specialized works are as under :-

    1. Should be registered in appropriate class of CPWD/MES/P&T/Sate PWD/PSU's/Railways or Specialized agencies in the similar nature of work and having Permanent Account Number (PAN)
    2. Should have satisfactorily completed (Phase/Part completion of the scope of work in a contract shall not be considered) at least three works, each of 40% of estimated cost put up to tender or two works each of 50% of estimated cost put up to tender or one work of�80% of estimated cost put up to tender of similar nature of work. (Nature of similar job shall be defined as per work requirement) during the last seven years ending last day of the month previous.
    3. Client certificate for experience should show the nature of work done, the value of work done , date of start, date of completion as per agreement, actual date of completion and satisfactory completion of work. Firms showing work experience certificate from Non Government / Non PSU organizations should submit copies of 'Tax Deduction at Source certificate' in support of their claim for having experience of stipulated value of works.
    4. Should have annualized average financial turnover of 30% of estimated cost put up to tender during the last three years ending 31st March, of previous financial year. As a proof, copy of abridged Balance Sheet along with Profit & loss account of the firm should be submitted along with the application. 

GRIHA is Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment for construction of Green Buildings. This is initiative of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

Yes, AAI has recently started to implement the GRIHA in new up-coming projects.

General Manager (Engg) is the head of Engineering at RHQ.

AAI has Project Monitoring & Quality Assurance (PMQA) Cell that ensure the quality of works. Projects are also selected for inspection by Chief Technical Examiner Organization under central vigilance commission. CTE type inspections are also carried out by vigilance directorate of AAI in house.

Aerodrome fire category from cat 1 to cat 10 is determined based on the longest aeroplanes normally using the aerodromes and their fuselage width as per ICAO.

For fire safety protection and prevention measures at different category of airports, airport fire service follows the guidelines of International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). 

You have to pass examination and interview which are being conducted by AAI for different level of non executive and executives.

For non executive level candidates shall have 10+2 qualification passed and for executive level fire engineering degree or equivalent is needed. Airport fire fighter should posses? heavy vehicle driving license.

There are no female fire personnel in the AAI fire service.

You can get fire safety training information & fire training calender on AAI website www.aai.aero or contact to O/o General Manager (FS), Rajiv Gandhi Bhavan, Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi ? 03.

There are two fire training centres with AAI namely Fire Training Centre, New Delhi & Fire Service Training Centre, Kolkata.

Please do the following to undergo the said course:

Download application form

Fill the form alongwith medical certificate to be duly checked and certified by Regd,. Medical Practinoners with Regd. No.

Mention whether to undergo Basic Training Course at FSTC kolkata or FTC, New Delhi

Detail charges are given (proforma invoice) in the AAI website http://www.aai.aero/institutes/Fire_Training.jsp

Yes, there are various refresher course are designed for the fire fighter and fire safety officer.

You should pass 10+2 qualification and posses? heavy vehicle driving license. For further details visit on http://www.aai.aero/public_notices/BTC_ADMN_2011.pdf

Yes, partially for private trainee of basic training course.

Contact fire control room / fire station who will co-ordinate the repair with facilities. Any discrepancies w.r.t. fire protection or alarm systems should be reported immediately.

Normally fire drills in the terminal building are always announced in advance with notification in the building. Should you hear alarms, follow the emergency evacuation procedures for the building.

Rescue & Fire fighting crew remain standby to meet an emergency as per defined procedure in Airport Emergency Plan (AEP).

RFFV at airports are designed and maintained as per guidanmce of International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) where muncipal fire tender are designed as per BIS and state guideline.

Yes, in order to obtain hot work permit, concern section should approve and the forward the requisition for work permit to Incahrge Fire station.

Non fulfillment of any obligations under the agreed terms for the construction, maintenance (including performance standards) and expansion of airports will be default(s) by the project companies and penalty/termination provisions are included in the concession agreements followed by transfer of airports to AAI/Government of India. 

Details of airports / civil enclaves maintained and managed by AAI are given below:

International Airports

AAI AIRPORTS

CIVIL ENCLAVE

Ahmedabad (SVBPI) Goa
Amritsar Portblair
Calicut Srinagar
Chennai  
Guwahati (LGBI)  
Jaipur  
Kolkata (NSCBI)  
Thiruvananthapuram  

 

Customs Airports

 

AAI AIRPORTS

CIVIL ENCLAVE

Coiombatore Pune
Gaya Bagdogra
Lucknow  
Mangalore  
Patna  
Tiruchirapalli  
Varanasi  

Operational AAI Airports

1.
Agartala
23.
Kullu (Bhuntar)
2.
Agatti
24.
Lilabari (North Lakhimpur)
3.
Aurangabad
25.
Ludhiana
4.
Behala
26.
Madurai
5.
Belgaum
27.
Mysore
6.
Bhavnagar
28.
Pantnagar
7.
Bhopal
29.
Pondicherry
8.
Bhubaneshwar
30.
Porbandar
9.
Dehradun
31.
Raipur
10.
Dibrugarh (Mohanbari)
32.
Rajamundry
11.
Dimapur
33.
Rajkot
12.
Gondia
34.
Ranchi
13.
Hubli
35.
Safdarjung (Delhi)
14.
Hyderabad (Begumpet)
36.
Salem
15.
Imphal
37.
Shillong (Umroi)
16.
Indore
38.
Shimla
17.
Jabalpur
39.
Surat
18.
Juhu (Mumbai)
40.
Tirupati
19.
Kandla
41.
Tuticorin
20.
Kangra (Gaggal)
42.
Udaipur
21.
Kanpur (Civil)
43.
Vadodara
22.
Khajuraho
44.
Vijayawada

Non-Operational AAI Airports

1.
Aizawal (Turial)
18.
Khowai
2.
Akola
19.
Kishangarh
3.
Asansol
20.
Kota
4.
Balurghat
21.
Lalitpur
5.
Bilaspur
22.
Malda
6.
Chakulia
23.
Muzaffarpur
7.
Cooch Behar
24.
Nadirgul
8.
Cuddapah
25.
Panna
9.
Deesa (Palanpur)
26.
Passighat
10.
Donakonda
27.
Raxaul
11.
Jalgaon
28.
Rupsi
12.
Jharsuguda
29.
Satna
13.
Jogbani
30.
Shella
14.
Kailashahar
31.
Tazu
15.
Kamalpur
32.
Vellore
16.
Keshod (Junagarh)
33.
Warangal
17.
Khandwa    

Operational Civil Enclaves

1.
Agra 10. Jodhpur
2.
Allahabad
11
Jorhat
3.
Bangalore
12
Jaisalmer
4.
Bhuj
13
Kanpur (Chakeri)
5.
Chandigarh
14
Leh
6.
Gorakhpur
15
Pathankot
7.
Gwalior
16
Silchar
8.
Jammu
17
Tezpur
9.
Jamnagar
18
Visakhapatnam

UDF/ Development Fee being levied at new Greenfield and JVC airports to departing passengers is as under:

Airport

 

Amount of UDF / Development Fee (Rs.) Inclusive of all taxes

 

 
Domestic passenger
International passenger
Bengaluru Intl. Airport Ltd. 260 1070
Hyderabad Intl. Airport Ltd. 375 1000
Delhi Intl. Airport Ltd. 200* 1300*
Mumbai Intl. Airport Ltd. 100* 600*


*Development Fee

Performance Based Navigation (PBN) arrival and departure procedures have been implemented at Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai and Ahmedabad till date and procedures are under development for Hyderabad airport. 

User Development Fees (UDF) / Passenger Service Charges (PSF) is collected as part of passenger fare and remitted to concerned airport operators (AAI / Pvt. Airport / JVC). 

AAI is managed by a Board of Members appointed by the Central Government under Section 3 of the AAI Act. The Board of AAI presently comprises:

(a)       a Whole-Time Chairperson;
(b)       the DGCA, who is the Ex-Officio Member;
(c)        five Full Time Members for Operations, Finance, HR,  Planning and Air Navigation Services;
(d)       the JS (in-charge of AAI) and the AS&FA in the Ministry of Civil Aviation;
(e)       three Part-Time non-official Members.

As on date, the Board of Airports Authority of India consisted of the following Members :

  1. R K Srivastava, IAS - Chairman
  2. M. Sathiyavathy, Director General of Civil Aviation - Ex-Officio Member
  3. M. Sathiyavathy, AS & FA, MCA - Part-time Members (Official)
  4. Arun Kumar Joint Secretary, MCA - Part-time Members (Official)
  5. S. Raheja Member (Planning)
  6. V. Somasundaram Member (ANS)
  7. G.K.Chaukiyal Member (Operations)
  8. S. Suresh Member (Finance)
  9. Anuj Aggarwal Member (HR)

There are seventeen international airports in India as on date. These are:

AAI Managed Airports

Privately Managed Airports
  1. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport, Kolkata
  2. Chennai International Airport, Chennai
  3. Thiruvananthapuram International Airport
  4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel International Airport, Ahmedabad
  5. Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, Amritsar
  6. Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport, Guwahati
  7. Goa International Airport (Civil Enclave)
  8. Srinagar International Airport, Srinagar (Civil Enclave)
  9. Jaipur International Airport
  10. Kozhikode Airport, Calicut
  11. Veer Savarkar International Airport (Civil Enclave), Port Blair, A&N Islands (UT)

  12. Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi
  13. Chattrapati Shivaji International Airport, Mumbai
  14. GMR Hyderabad International Airport, Hyderabad
  15. Bangalore International Airport Limited, Bengaluru
  16. Cochin International Airport, Kochi (Private)  
  17. Bharat Ratna Babasaheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar International Airport, Nagpur (Maharashtra)

AAI has been consistently making profits since its formation. In February 2009, AAI was granted "Miniratna Category 1 PSE" status by the Government of India. As a Miniratna Category 1 PSE, the Financial Powers of the Board of AAI to invest capital expenditure have been enhanced to Rs.500 crores without Govt. approval. 
 

As per the Govt. of India's Policy on Airport Infrastructures issued in December, 1999, no Greenfield airport will normally be allowed within a distance of 150 kms from the nearest existing airport. Where the Govt. decides to set up a new airport at such place through AAI on social economic consideration, even through the same is not economically viable, suitable grant-in-aid will be provided to AAI to cover both the initial capital cost as well as recurring losses. 

Govt of India has been encouraging participation of State Governments in development of airport infrastructures. The New Bangalore Airport, New Hyderabad Airport and Cochin International Airport (CIAL) are examples of participation of State Govt. through joint venture. In the Domestic airport, State Governments normally hand over the required land for development of airport free of cost and free from all encumbrances as a token of State government participation. The examples are Vizag, Khajuraho, Amritsar, Pathankot, Dehradun, Lucknow, Varanasi airports where respective State Govts. have given land free of cost. 
 

Airports Authority of India has taken the following steps to reduce delays:

  1. AAI had initiated measures for high speed exit taxiways at Delhi and Mumbai airports. A parallel taxi-track has been constructed at Delhi airport by which runway occupancy time has been reduced considerably.
  2. Mumbai and Delhi airports has been handed over to Joint Venture Companies for further development of ground infrastructure.
  3. Delhi International Airport Ltd. has already constructed third runway to accommodate more arrivals and departures at Delhi Airport.
  4. Simultaneous use of both runways at Delhi and Mumbai airport has started during the traffic congestion period.
  5. The beginning of runway 32 and 27 have been joined by constructing a new taxi-track and beginning of runway 27 is joined from international apron to reduce runway occupancy time.
  6. AAI has already taken up the project for upgradation of 35 non-metro airports enable in handling the increased air traffic at those airports.
  7. Improved ATC procedures have been designed.
  8. Clearance Delivery Position has been established at Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad International airports to reduce R/T congestion.
  9. Ban on general aviation aircraft during peak period at Mumbai Airport has been imposed.
  10. ATC Automation System at Delhi and Mumbai have been upgraded.
  11. Advanced Surface Movement Guidance and Control System [ASMGCS] along with Surface Movement Radar has been installed and in operation at Delhi, Bengaluru and Hyderabad Airports.
  12. Advanced Surface Movement Guidance and Control System [ASMGCS] is under process for Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata airport.
  13. Air Traffic Flow Management System is under consideration.
  14. Kolkata ILS has been upgraded to CAT II ILS to cater to operation with lower visibility.
  15. New Integrated Automation System for Chennai and Kolkata is being planned.
  16. At the time of slot allocation schedule arrival and departure time are spread in such a manner that bunching should not take place resulting into delays.
  17. The number of hourly movements of flights are freezed at Mumbai and Delhi airport as per with availability runway / terminal building capacity.

All operational airports managed by AAI have been provided with Aeronautical Ground Lights except Umroi (Barapani) in Meghalaya.
However, only Instrument Flight Rules airports (Airports equipped with all weather day and night operational capability) can be permitted to be used for night operations. 

Passenger Service Fees (PSF) is levied to meet the expenditure on airport security and passenger facilities at the airports and it is not utilised to fund new development / upgradation of airports. 

Greenfield airports like Hyderabad and Bangalore are levying User Development Fee (UDF) from embarking passengers to fund viability gap of these airports. DIAL and MIAL have also been authorised by the Government to levy UDF from embarking passengers at Delhi and Mumbai airports to fund modernization of Delhi and Mumbai airports. 

Development Fee is a levy made under section 22A of the AAI Act, 1994, inter-alia, for funding or financing the cost of upgradation, modernization or development of the airport. The levy is in the nature of a "pre-funding" charge and is consistent with ICAO policies. 
 

Final Operational Phase (FOP) of GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) is under implementation and is expected to be operationalized by June, 2013. This technology is not airport based but it is space based. Once the GAGAN system is operational, it will be available for use at all airports in the country. 

A new Greenfield airport is under construction at Pakyong in Sikkim. The estimated cost of this project is Rs.309 crores and the project is expected to be completed by January, 2012. 

The key reasons for restructuring and modernizing Delhi and Mumbai airports are:

  1. To improve the standard of services and facilities at these Airports.
  2. To facilitate infusion of private sector investments as also foreign direct investment in the airport sector.
  3. To improve managerial efficiency.
  4. To induct state of the art technologies.
  5. Delhi and Mumbai being gateway airports to the country and cater to a large number of tourist and other passengers, it is felt imperative to improve these airports to world-class standards and create positive impression of the country.

In case of any event of default which, if not cured within time period permitted, shall provide AAI the right to terminate the Agreement. 

Share of revenue to AAI is 45.99% in case of DIAL and 38.7% in case of MIAL on the Gross Revenue. 

The JVCs are required to submit various reports to AAI on regular basis as indicated as below:

  1. Monthly Activity Report
  2. Operating Statistics
  3. Reports on various indicators of performance measurement
  4. Quarterly financial accounts
  5. Annual Budget
  6. Latest update of Business plan
  7. Any other reports informed/ required by AAI/Govt. of India


Further AAI has also fixed Service Quality Requirements & Development Standard which are required to be followed by JVC (DIAL & MIAL) failing which AAI/Govt. can impose penalty. 

AAI takes part in all major decisions of these airports through its Board members who are part of the Board of JVCs. 

Yes Sir, AAI has 26% share of Equity capital in both JVCs (i.e. DIAL & MIAL). 

DIAL and MIAL are required to achieve, within two years from the Effective Date, and thereafter maintain throughout the Term ISO9001: 2000 certification (or appropriate substitute certification in the event of ISO 9001:2000 certification being discontinued) for all facilities relating to Aeronautical Services of the Airport. Further, DIAL and MIAL shall, commencing from the first anniversary of Effective Date, and hereafter every quarter, participate in the IATA/ACI AETRA passenger survey and achieves a rating of 3.75 in the IATA/ACI AETRA passenger survey or greater and maintains the same throughout the Term.

Like-wise, both BIAL and GHIAL shall participate in IATA surveys and shall ensure that a survey is conducted each year in accordance with IATA's requirements to determine the Airports? performance and achieve service standards not lower than IATA rating of 3.5 (in the TATA scale of 1 to 5). The first such survey shall be conducted during the third (3rd) year after Airport Opening. 
 

Apart from security functions, the functions like customs, immigration, Health, meteorology, plant and animal quarantine and CNS/ATM Services at these airports will continue to be performed by the Government Agencies. The safety of the private airport is thus ensured by retaining the security functions at the airport with the government agencies. 

The technical and financial bids submitted by the bidders were segregated by the authorized officials of AAI in the presence of representatives of bidders on 14th September 2005 and the same were separately sealed and besides the signatures of the authorized officials of AAI, the signatures of the representatives of the bidders were also obtained on the sealed covers/boxes. 

Subsequently, a meeting of the Inter-Ministerial Group Meeting was held on 19th September 2005 wherein it was decided that the evaluation should be undertaken by a composite team of Financial Consultant (ABN-AMRO), Global Technical Advisor (Airplan Pty. Australia) and Legal Consultant (Amarchand & Mangaldas) ensuring independent analysis, transparency, consistency, non-discrimination and equity. Further, it was decided by the IMG that since the Transaction Documents and RFP documents are frozen, no such view should be taken by the Consultants, which could be viewed as change in the provisions of the final Transaction Documents including RFP. In addition, it was stated by IMG on the approach to evaluation process of technical criteria presented by FC, that the same should not be conflict with the RFP documents. Further, the IMG decided that considering the complexity and voluminous data, a separate Government Group (GRC) be constituted to conduct an independent review of the evaluation undertaken by the consultants including the approach to the evaluation adopted by the consultants.

The technical bids kept under sealed covers were opened on 22nd September 2005 by the authorized officials of AAI in the presence of the representatives of bidders. Thereafter these technical bids were handed over to the consultants for evaluation. The consultants undertook the evaluation and submitted their reports on 22nd November 2005. 

The evaluation report of the consultants was considered by the GRC in its meetings held on 23rd and 24th November 2005. The GRC submitted its report to the MCA for further action. The report of the consultants and the report of the GRC were placed before the IMG. The IMG considered the report of the consultants and GRC in its meeting held on 2nd December 2005 and the findings of the IMG were considered by the EGOM in its meeting held on 5thDecember 2005 and subsequent to the same, the IMG held series of meetings on 6th, 8th, 9th, 12th, 13th, 14th and 16th December 2005.

Subsequently, Ministry of Civil Aviation vide their letter dated 30th January 2006 directed AAI to open the financial bids of the under-mentioned bidders:
For Mumbai Airport
  • GMR Consortium
  • Reliance Consortium
  • GVK Consortium
  • D.S. Construction Consortium
For Delhi Airport
  • GMR Consortium
  • Reliance Consortium
  • D.S. Construction Consortium
  • Macquarie Consortium

Accordingly, Chairman AAI, vide order dated 30th January 2006, constituted a committee comprising of officials from AAI and Ministry of Civil Aviation. The report of the committee was required to be sent to MCA. Further to the above, the MCA vide letter dated 31st January 2006 communicated the procedure to be adopted for opening of financial bids and also the information to be given to the representatives of the bidders before opening of the financial bids. 

Accordingly, the sealed envelopes containing the financial bids of the aforesaid bidders were opened by the committee constituted by Chairman, AAI on 31st January 2006 in the presence of the representatives of the bidder and the report of the committee was forwarded to the MCA for further necessary action. 

The MCA vide their letter dated 4th February 2006 communicated the decision of the competent authority regarding the selection of GMR Consortium as the successful bidder for Delhi airport and GVK Consortium as the successful bidder for Mumbai airport. The successful bidders were informed by AAI accordingly vide its letter dated 4th February 2006.

Both the successful bidders, as per the RFP requirement, enhanced the value of bid bond from Rs. 50 crores to Rs. 500 crores each and also furnished bank guarantees to this effect.

AAI initiated other actions for finalizing the transaction including the formation of two separate companies for Delhi and Mumbai airports. Delhi International Airport Pvt. Limited (DIAL) and Mumbai International Airport Pvt. Limited (MIAL) were formed and Delhi and Mumbai airports were handed over to these companies respectively on 3rd May 2006. 
 
31. If the private airport operators are unable to fulfill the obligations, what steps Government can take against them? 
Non fulfillment of any obligations under the agreed terms for the construction, maintenance (including performance standards) and expansion of airports will be default(s) by the project companies and penalty/termination provisions are included in the concession agreements followed by transfer of airports to AAI/Government of India. 

Six binding Offers (Technical and Financial bids) were received for Mumbai airport and five binding Offers were received for Delhi airport by the last date of receipt i.e. 14th September 2005. The details of the bidders are as under:

CONSORTIUM DETAILS

1

Reliance Consortium

1. Reliance Airport Developers Pvt.Ltd 
2. Reliance Energy Limited 
3. Aeropuertos y Servicios Auxilliares**

2

GMR Consortium

1. GMR Infrastructure Limited 
2. GMR Energy Limited 
3. GVL Investements Pvt Limited 
4. Fraport AG Airport Services Worldwide** 
5. Malaysia Airports (Niaga) Sdn. Berhad** 
6. India Development Fund

3

Essel-TAV Consortium

1. Pan India Paryatan Limited 
2. Ganjam Trading Company Pvt. Limited 
3. Tepe-Akfen-Vie Yatirim Yapim Ve Isletme Anonim Sirketi (TAV)**

4

DS Construction Consortium

1. D.S. Constructions Limited 
2. Flughafen Munchen GmbH** 
3. Ebony Retail Holdings Limited 
4. Hirandani Properties Pvt. Limited

5

Macquarie Consortium

1. Macquaire India Airports One Limited 
2. Macquaire India Airports Two Limited 
3. Sterlite Infrastructure Limited 
4. Aeroports de Paris Management**

6

GVK Consortium

1. GVK Industries Limited* 
2. Airports Company South Africa** 
3. The Bidvest Group Limited**

Note: 
*GVK Consortium has bid only for Mumbai airport
**Foreign companies/ foreign airport operators 

Subsequent to the issue of the final RFP documents, management presentations were made to PQBs and site visits were organized for them. Also replies were furnished to the due diligence questions of the PQBs and PQBs were allowed to carry out technical inspection of airports. Besides these, management interviews were held between the AAI management and the PQBs and review meetings of PQBs conducted with the Government Transaction Team (GTT). Also as part of the process, the PQBs were allowed to change the members of the consortia by furnishing the requisite information within a stipulated date.

Further, proposals were received from the bidders on the changes sought by them in the draft Transaction Documents. These changes were discussed with the consultants and after the Inter-Ministerial consultations on the changes sought by the bidders; approval of the EGOM was obtained in its meetings held on 14th June and 22nd June 2005 for the Transaction Documents. Final Transaction Documents were frozen and issued to the PQBs on 30th August 2005. 
 

The details of the consortia, who submitted their EOIs, are as under: 

(a) M/s. Bharti Enterprises Pvt. Ltd., 
Singapore Changi Airport Enterprise Pte. Ltd. 

(b) M/s. Hochtief Airport GmbH , Piramal Holdings Ltd.,
L&T Holding Ltd.

(c) M/s. Macquarie Bank Ltd.,
Agarwal Galvanising Pvt. Limited
Aeoprorts de Paris. 

(d) M/s. GMR Infrastructure Ltd.,
Fraport AG
India Development Fund 

(e) M/s. Pan India Paryatan Ltd.,
TAV Investment Construction and 
Operation Corporation, 
Ganjam Trading Pvt. Ltd., 

(f) M/s. GVK Industries Ltd.,
Airports Company South Africa Limited 
Old Mutual Asset Managers,
The Bidvest Group Limited. 

(g) M/s. DLF Universal Ltd.,
Malaysia Airport Holdings Berhad 

(h) M/s. Reliance Airport Developers Pvt. Ltd.,
Reliance Energy Ltd.,
Vinci Airports. 

(i) DS Construction Ltd (DSCL)
Flughafen Munchen GmbH (Munich) 
John Laing International Ltd UK (John Laing) 
Apollo Enterprises Ltd UK (Apollo) 
Ebony Retail Holdings Ltd (Ebony). 

After obtaining the approval of EGOM, Expressions of Interest (EOI) was solicited from interested parties to acquire 74 % equity stake in the JVC and the complete documentation, in this regard, was uploaded in the websites of AAI and MCA on 17.02.2004. The last date for submission of EOI was 20th July 2004. A total of 10 consortia submitted their EOIs and nine parties were pre-qualified for the stage-2 of the process i.e. Request For Proposal (RFP) stage. RFP documents along with Information Memorandum, Reports of the Global Technical Adviser and Reports of Accounting and Tax Advisor in respect of each of the airports were issued to the Pre-Qualified Bidders (PQBs) on 1st April 2005. Besides these documents, draft Transaction Documents were also issued to the PQBs. 

The Policy on Airport Infrastructure envisages that 74% Foreign Direct Investment could be on automatic approval and 100% on special approval. However, the EGOM, took a decision on 21st June 2004 to reduce the Foreign Direct Investment to 49% in the Joint Venture Companies (JVCs) set up for the restructuring and modernization of Delhi and Mumbai airports. The balance 25% of the overall 74% equity to be held by the private Indian entities. 

Yes. Through a Global Tender Process, M/s ABN AMRO Asia Corporate Finance (I) Ltd., had been selected and appointed as Financial Consultants in January 2004. A Global Technical Adviser (GTA), to advise AAI/ MCA on all technical aspects of the transaction, had also been appointed. M/s Amarchand & Mangaldas & Suresh A. Shroff & Co were retained as Legal Consultant. M/s Thakur, Vaidyanath Aiyar & Co. was appointed as Accounting and Tax Advisor. 

The Cabinet in its meeting held on 11th September 2003 accorded its approval for the restructuring of Delhi and Mumbai airports by adopting a Joint-Venture by setting up two separate companies. 

An Independent Auditor appointed by AAI is required to audit the accounts of the JVCs (DIAL & MIAL ). 

The term of OMDA is for 30 years with a right to JVC to seek further extension of 30 years subject to no JVC event of default in the preceding five years. 
 

The OMDA provides an exhaustive list of Event of Default which include:

  1. Any material breach by the JVC of its obligations under OMDA.
  2. Failure of the JVC to operate and maintain the airport in accordance with the applicable laws.
  3. Non-achievement and non-maintenance of ISO Certification.
  4. Continued non-achievement of Service Quality Requirement Standards.
  5. Breach of obligations under Development Standards and Requirements.
  6. Failure by the JVC to make any payment to AAI.
  7. Failure of JVC to maintain insurance.
  8. Non-adherence, violation or non-compliance of the Master Plan or any other major development plan.
  9. JVC directly or indirectly undertaking any activity other than those permitted under OMDA.
  10. Transfer of shares or voting rights in any entity or change in Operator in violation of provisions Articles 2.5.
  11. Failure to replenish the performance bond towards of full amount within three months after encashment.

Under OMDA Indian Defence Forces have been provided full rights of usage of the airport and all its facilities free of charge. Further, the agreements provides for airspace allocation and closure, runway usage etc. to be decided by the GoI at times of any emergency. 
 

OMDA provides a time-frame to achieve different Objectives Service Quality Standards and to maintain these standards thereafter. In case of failure to achieve the prescribed standards thereafter. In case of failure to achieve the prescribed standards in time or if the airport continues to perform below the targeted standards a penalty clause is built in. Further, the JVC is required to achieve a minimum of airport rating of 3.5 after completion of stage 1 and 3.75 after completion of stage 2. A penalty clause is also provided for its failure to achieve the target rating a penalty of 2.5% of monthly revenue has also been provided in OMDA. 

No rights have been conferred on JVC however, in case the GOI decides to develop a 2nd airport at Mumbai and Delhi the JVC has been given a Right of First Refusal (ROFR). The JVC would need to complete with other bidders and in case the bid of the JVC is within the range of 10% of the most competitive bid, the JVC will have ROFR by matching the 1st Rank bid in terms of the selection criteria for the 2nd airport. 

All the sovereign function namely customs immigration, health, ATC and security etc. shall continue to be performed by the respective GoI agency. 

The performance bond is to be submitted by JVC in the form of Bank Guarantee from the Scheduled Commercial bank in India with a minimum validity of 12 months for an amount of Rs.500 crores. The said Bank Guarantee will be escalated annually at the rate of inflation (as measured by All India Consumer Price Index-Industrial workers for the immediately preceding year) for the first five years after the effective date. 
 

Yes Sir. As per the Shareholders Agreement entered to amongst the promoters to this project, the lock in period of each promoter is:
Siemens Project Ventures GmbH: 40% of the paid up capital of BIAL for a period of three years after the commercial operations date of the new airport and 26% shares for a period of seven years after commercial operations date of the new airport.
Unique Zurich: 5% of the paid up capital of BIAL for a period of three years after the commercial operations date of the new airport.
Larsen and Toubro Limited: No lock in period is specified for their 17% shareholding in BIAL. 

Hyderabad airport Government Andhra Pradesh (GoAP), Airports Authority of India (AAI) and consortium of private promoters lead by GMR Industries Limited other members of consortium being Malaysian Airports Holdings Berhard are promoters to this Greenfield airport project. Their shareholding pattern in the Hyderabad International Airport Limited, a company incorporate under Companies Act for this projects.

GMR Industries Limited - 63% 
Malaysian Airports Holdings Berhard - 11%
GoPA and AAI together will held -26% 

(AAI's investment is capped at Rs.50 crores) 
 

Government of Karnataka through Karnataka State Industrial Investment & Development Corporation (KSIIDC), Airports Authority of India (AAI) and consortium of private promoters lead by Siemens Project Ventures GmbH and other members of consortium being Flughafen Zureich AG and Larsen & Toubro Limited are promoters to this Greenfield airport project. Their shareholding pattern in the Bangalore International Airport Limited, a company incorporated under Companies Act for this project is: 

Siemens Projects Ventures GmbH - 40%
Flughafen Zureich AG - 17%
Larsen & Toubro Limited - 17%
KSIIDC and AAI together will hold - 26%

(AAI's investment is capped at Rs.50 crores) 
 

Yes Sir. As per the Shareholders Agreement entered to amongst the promoters to this project, the lock in period of each promoter is:
Siemens Project Ventures GmbH: 40% of the paid up capital of BIAL for a period of three years after the commercial operations date of the new airport and 26% shares for a period of seven years after commercial operations date of the new airport.
Unique Zurich: 5% of the paid up capital of BIAL for a period of three years after the commercial operations date of the new airport.
Larsen and Toubro Limited: No lock in period is specified for their 17% shareholding in BIAL. 

Non Metro airports are identified based upon potential for traffic growth, tourism, business potential and importance of airports located at State capitals etc.

Area navigation(R-NAV) based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace. The performance-based navigation (PBN) concept specifies that aircraft RNAV system performance requirements be defined in terms of accuracy, integrity, availability, continuity and functionality required for the proposed operations in the context of a particular airspace concept, when supported by the appropriate navigation infrastructure. In that context, the PBN concept represents a shift from sensor-based to performance-based navigation. 

A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these. 

Required Navigation Performance (RNP) is Area Navigation(R-NAV) with on board performance monitoring and alerting requirement. A critical component of RNP is the ability of the aircraft navigation system to monitor its achieved navigation performance and alert the pilot whether the required navigation performance is met on not. 
 

hose navigation aids, which are ground based, like VOR, NDB, DME etc. 

These are the navigation aids contained within the aircraft system and do not depend upon the ground based navigation aids like, Inertial navigation system or inertial reference system, Aircraft Based Augmentation system etc. 

An augmentation system that augments and/or integrates the information obtained from the other GNSS elements with information available on board the aircraft.

Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is the standard generic term for satellite navigation systems that provide autonomous geo-spatial positioning with global coverage. A GNSS allows small electronic receivers to determine their location (longitude, latitude, and altitude) to within a few meters using time signals transmitted along a line-of-sight by radio from satellites. Receivers on the ground with a fixed position can also be used to calculate the precise time as a reference for scientific experiments. 
 

The primary means of navigation for PBN is GNSS, though VOR-DME, DME-DME, DME-DME-IRU can also support various phases of flight. 
 

Performance-based navigation offers a number of advantages over the sensor-specific method of developing airspace and obstacle clearance criteria. 
For instance, PBN:

  1. reduces the need to maintain sensor-specific routes and procedures, and their associated costs. For example, moving a single VOR ground facility can impact dozens of procedures, as VOR can be used on routes, VOR approaches, missed approaches, etc.
  2. avoids the need for development of sensor-specific operations with each new evolution of navigation systems, which would be cost-prohibitive.
  3. allows for more efficient use of airspace;

AAI has been constituted under an Act of Parliament, namely, the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994 and has been constituted as a Statutory Body.

Airports Authority of India (AAI) manages 115 airports in the country, which includes 23 civil enclaves.

As per ICAO Asia pacific Regional plan, PBN procedures will be implemented at all international airports by 2012 and at other major airports by 2016.

 

An Inertial Navigation System (INS) is a navigation aid that uses a computer and motion sensors to continuously track the position, orientation, and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of a moving object without the need for external references. 

Yes. Pre-funding charges have been levied by several countries. Some of the international airports are (a) Newquay International Airport, UK (b) Blackpool International Airport, UK (c) Norwich International Airport, UK (d) Norman Manley International Airport, Jamaica (e) Hailfax Airport, Canada (f) Pearson International Airport, Toronto, Canada and (g) Winninpeg James Armstrong Richardson International Airport, Canada. 

Airports Authority of India (AAI) is in the process of exploring new avenues to increase Non-Traffic Revenue as per the following:

  1. introducing the concept of master concessionaires at major airports by bunching major contracts which shall not only increase the revenue but also enable easy monitoring;
  2. tendering of the Ground Handling facilities at the airports which was earlier done only through selected agencies which has resulted in manifold increase of revenue of AAI; and
  3. introduction of innovative schemes / facilities at the airports which shall not only facilitate the passengers but also increase the revenue to AAI.

The BCAS has the powers to issue AEPs however to cater to immediate requirement, the Airport Directors are authorized to issue temporary AEPs based on specific requests supported by Photo Identification proofs and recommendations of the deployment agency.

Dte. of security was established in AAI in the year 2002.

The functions of Dte. of Security are as follows: 

a) Ensure effective functioning of security apparatus

b) Ensure requisite physical barriers/structures.

c) Ensure installations of requisite equipments and

d) Ensure proper coordination

The Dte. of Security acts as the nodal agency of AAI to carry out its designated functions covering AAI airports only. At individual airports, the Airport Directors are responsible for these functions. The JVC/private/other airports e.g. DIAL, MIAL, CIAL, HIAL, BIAL, MIHAN are responsible for Delhi, Mumbai, Cochin, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Nagpur airports respectively. These airports have their own security set up to monitor and carry out security functions.

The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security is the designated agency of Govt. of India under the Ministry of Civil Aviation for making regulations, procedures and issuing directions covering the security aspects of aircraft operations and airports in India. Their instructions are to be complied with both by the airlines and the airports.

Passengers are advised that they should keep a strict vigil on their baggages while these are placed on the X-ray baggage inspection systems and at the time of retrieval, passenger must immediately check their items. In the event of any loss being detected, the matter must be immediately reported to the security in-charge of the security hold area, representatives of the airlines and airport operator. 

The AAI has deployed CISF to carry out the airport security functions at 52 AAI airports / civil enclaves while at remaining operational airports /civil enclaves, State Police carries these functions. 

No, at present security officers are posted only at about a seven airports in the country.

The Dte. of Security is located at 'C' Wing, 2nd Floor, R.G. Bhawan, Safdarjung Airport, New Delhi.

The contact details of Director (Security) are Telephone (Office) 011-24616203 Fax 011-24690324
E-Mail - directorsecurity@aai.aero

The Dte. of Security is headed by an officer of the rank of Director. The post of Director (Security) is filled on deputation from amongst IPS officers of the rank of DIG/IG. Presently IG rank officer has been posted in the Security Directorate of AAI. 

Following precautions need to be observed by the air travelers and the visitors:

Whenever they observe a suspicious person, the matter should be reported to the security agency/terminal manager.

Passengers and visitors shall keep a vigil at all times whether on ground or in flight so that no unauthorized person is able to either remove or place an object in their baggage without their knowledge.

Passenger should not accept any item to be carried by them on the flight from unknown persons since these might be prohibited items and / or explosives which might warrant action against the concerned passenger.

Passengers while retrieving their registered baggage from the conveyor belt or the arrival hall must take care to pick up their own baggages by tallying the serial number of the coupons given to them at the time of checking in by the airlines and the numbers on the tags of the baggages.

It is the responsibility of the passenger/visitor to lodge an FIR with the concerned state police since it is a law and order subject.

he recordings of the CCTV cameras are kept only for thirty days and hence reports of loss shall be reported immediately to the concerned airport's Airport Director. 

No, the AAI only looks into the losses which may take place in the airport building / in the security hold area, however any loss which may occur in the registered baggage of a passenger, the concerned airlines needs to be approached.

Whenever a passenger or a visitor at an airport notices loss of any item, he should report the matter to the Airport Director / Airport Terminal Manager / Chief Airport Security Officer or Shift In-charge of CISF/Police.

Yes, the same is obtained in the form of questionnaire/ Show cause notice before concluding the investigation.

One month for verification of complaint and three months for investigation of complaint having vigilance angle.

No, such complaints are marked to HoD for further administrative action.

Yes, to authenticate the complaint as genuine which will be considered for investigation immediately.

No. Such complaints are termed as anonymous/ pseudonymous hence not entertained.

VC is valid for a period of 3 months from the date of issue. In case the promotion is to be considered after 3 months, VC to be sought again. In case of some new and serious matter crops up against any of the persons to whom VC is already granted, the Vigilance Department will inform the same to Personnel Directorate.

No, these guidelines do not apply to employees of Central Public Sector Enterprises.

Issues having serious irregularities by AAI employees involving external agencies are referred for investigation by CBI with the approval of Disciplinary Authority.

Yes, all complaints received are perused by CVO and ordered for verification/ detailed investigation/ administrative action / for filing as deemed fit.

i. Online complaints may be registered in vigilance page of www.aai.aero i.e. http://www.aai.aero/vigilance/reg1.jsp attaching the documentary proof as PDFs.

ii. Source information/ Verbal complaints can be reported in the toll free No. 1800-11- 0402 installed in the office of the CVO, AAI.

iii. Written complaints with supporting documents can be sent to the following address: The Chief Vigilance Officer Airports Authority of India Corporate Headquarters Rajiv Gandhi Bhawan Safdarjung Airport New Delhi - 110003.

No, complaints related to officials/ stakeholders of AAI and the matter related to the services being provided by Airports Authority of India are only to be referred to Vigilance Department, AAI?

Complaints regarding corrupt practices (demanding or acceptance of bribe) / misuse of official position for private gain/doubtful integrity related to the officials of AAI including stake holders.

No, these guidelines do not apply to employees of Central Public Sector Enterprises.

(a) In the case of VC for promotion by DPC:

No. Only the Vigilance status i.e. the factual position of contemplation of RDA/Prosecution Sanction, will be provided to the HR Directorate for DPC purposes.

(b) In other cases of VC for Empanelment, Deputation and appointments to sensitive posts etc.:

Yes, if the Disciplinary Authority is in agreement with CBI’s report/recommendations.

(a) In the case of VC for promotion by DPC:

No. Only the Vigilance status i.e. contemplation of RDA, will be provided to the HR Directorate for DPC purposes.

(b) In other cases of VC for Empanelment, Deputation and appointments to sensitive posts etc

Yes.

Yes. Vigilance Clearance is withheld in respect of promotion, forwarding of application and foreign assignments during the currency of penalty period.

Central Vigilance Commission to the Ministry concerned.

(a) In the case of VC for promotion by DPC:

No. Only the Vigilance status i.e. contemplation of RDA, will be provided to the HR Directorate for DPC purposes.

(b) In other cases of VC for Empanelment, Deputation and appointments to sensitive posts etc.:

Yes. If the Disciplinary Authority accepts the advice given by the CVC.

No. However, the status is given in respect of the individual concerned, at the time of giving Vigilance Clearance.

(a) In the case of VC for promotion by DPC:

No. However, if the Disciplinary Authority has given a formal decision for initiation of disciplinary proceedings, either for minor or major proceedings, the Vigilance status i.e. contemplation of RDA/factual position, will be provided to the HR Directorate for DPC & taking a view.

(b) In other cases of VC for Empanelment, Deputation and appointments to sensitive posts etc.:

Yes, only when RDA is recommended for initiating major/minor proceedings against the individual and the same has been accepted by the Disciplinary Authority and a formal decision has been taken.

The following acts of misconduct broadly have an element of Vigilance angle:-

i. Demand and/or accepting gratification other than legal remuneration in respect of an official act or for using his influence with any other official.

ii. Obtaining valuable thing without consideration or with inadequate consideration from a person with whom he has or likely to have official dealings or his subordinates have official dealings or where he can exert influence.

iii. Obtaining for himself or for any other person any valuable thing or pecuniary advantage by corrupt or illegal means or by abusing his position as a public servant

iv. Possession of assets disproportionate to his known source of income.

v. Cases of misappropriation, forgery or cheating or other similar criminal offences.

vi. Gross or willful negligence; recklessness in decision making; blatant violation of systems and procedures; exercise of discretion in excess, where no ostensible/public interest is evident; failure to keep the controlling authority/superior informed in time

          The above acts of misconducts are only illustrative in nature. Broadly speaking, all acts which have illegal or irregular monetary consideration or where the organisation suffers financial losses on account of gross negligence on the part of the employees, have a Vigilance angle.

Vigilance Clearance is an instrument to certify whether an employee is involved in any misconduct or criminal offence like demand/ acceptance of illegal gratification, possession of disproportionate assets, forgery, cheating, abuse of official position involving vigilance angle and violation of any of the provisions of the Airports Authority of India Employees (Conduct, Discipline & Appeal) Regulations, 2003.

In general Personnel Department seek Vigilance Clearance in the following matters:

I. Promotion

II. Confirmation

III. Forwarding of application for appointment/assignment outside the deptt.

IV. Issue/renewal of Passport

V. Permission to visit abroad

VI. Resignation

VII. Superannuation

VIII. Placement in the next higher scale

IX. Deputation to another organisation

X. Selection/appointment for Board level appointees

XI. Seeking VRS

XII. Clearance of probation period

XIII. Placement as SM(SG)/Asstt.GM

XIV. Grant of promotion under FCS/Career Progression Scheme

In the matter such as applications for renewal/issue of NOC for passport, permission for private visit abroad, forwarding of applications for appointment/ assignment/deputation outside the department, the concerned officials applies to the Personnel Directorate who in turn seeks Vigilance Clearance from the Vigilance Department as well as Disciplinary Cell at CHQ. In all other matters Personnel Department seeks Vigilance Clearance as a mandatory requirement.

  • The employee is not given promotion
  • The employee is not confirmed to the grade
  • The application of the employee is not forwarded outside the department
  • The employee is not given NOC for issue/renewal of Passport
  • The employee is not permitted to visit abroad on personal visit.
  • The employee is not given pensionary benefits on superannuation 

Vigilance Clearance is withheld primarily on account of the following reasons:-

a. When major/minor penalty charge sheet has been issued and the disciplinary proceedings are pending

b. When prosecution for a criminal charge is pending

c. When the employee is under suspension

Circumstances under which Vigilance Clearance is withheld have been highlighted in the subsequent questions

The Court Judgement in KV Janakiraman case broadly identified three primary reasons as in Q.3 above is followed in AAI as regards Vigilance Clearance as per the instructions issued by the Department of Personnel & Training’s OM No. 22011/4/91- Estt.(A) dt. 14.09.1992. Some illustrative examples are given in Annex-1.

(a) In the case of VC for promotion by DPC:

No. However, if the Disciplinary Authority has given a formal decision for initiation of disciplinary proceedings, either for minor or major proceedings, the Vigilance status i.e. contemplation of RDA / factual position, will be provided to the HR Directorate for DPC & taking a view.

(b) In other cases of VC for Empanelment, Deputation and appointments to sensitive posts etc.:

Yes, if it is established on the basis of at least a preliminary inquiry or on the basis of any information that the concerned Department may already in it possession, that there is prima facie substance to verifiable allegations regarding corruption, possession of assets disproportionate to known sources of income and moral turpitude and violation of any conduct rules, and if the Disciplinary Authority has given a formal decision for initiation of disciplinary proceedings against the individual in file, either for minor or major proceedings.

Yes. If Charge sheet has been filed in the Court by the investigating agency in a criminal case and the Court has taken cognizance of offence.

No, Vigilance Department, AAI investigates any complaints related to serving employees only.

Yes, the same is obtained in the form of questionnaire/ Show cause notice before concluding the investigation.
 

One month for verification of complaint and three months for investigation of complaint having vigilance angle.
 

No, such complaints are marked to HoD for further administrative action.

Yes, to authenticate the complaint as genuine which will be considered for investigation immediately.

No. Such complaints are termed as anonymous/ pseudonymous hence not entertained.
 

VC is valid for a period of 3 months from the date of issue. In case the promotion is to be considered after 3 months, VC to be sought again. In case of some new and serious matter crops up against any of the persons to whom VC is already granted, the Vigilance Department will inform the same to Personnel Directorate.

Yes, all complaints received are perused by CVO and ordered for verification/ detailed investigation/ administrative action / for filing as deemed fit.
 
5. What types of complaints are referred for investigation by external agency like CBI?
Issues having serious irregularities by AAI employees involving external agencies are referred for investigation by CBI with the approval of Disciplinary Authority.

i. Online complaints may be registered in vigilance page of www.aai.aero i.e. http://www.aai.aero/vigilance/reg1.jsp attaching the documentary proof as PDFs.
ii. Source information/ Verbal complaints can be reported in the toll free No.1800-11-0402 installed in the office of the CVO, AAI.
iii. Written complaints with supporting documents can be sent to the following address:
The Chief Vigilance Officer
Airports Authority of India
Corporate Headquarters
Rajiv Gandhi Bhawan
Safdarjung Airport
New Delhi - 110003.

No, complaints related to officials/ stakeholders of AAI and the matter related to the services being provided by Airports Authority of India are only to be referred to Vigilance Department, AAI? 
 

Complaints regarding corrupt practices (demanding or acceptance of bribe) / misuse of official position for private gain/doubtful integrity related to the officials of AAI including stake holders.

No, Vigilance Department, AAI investigates any complaints related to serving employees only.

No, although they may share similar accuracies. LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches are RNAV approaches. RNP approach design involves linear obstacle assessments, while LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches use angular obstacle assessments.

A Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) is a primary air navigation system that provides augmented accuracy and integrity to a Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) navigation signal such as used by the U.S. Global Positioning System (GPS). GNSS alone is considered a supplemental air-navigation system. An SBAS provides improved service availability over a wide area and is a more reliable navigation service than GNSS alone.

The internationally cooperative standards for SBAS were published as the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) Annex 10 by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations. The ICAO is chartered to provide globally interoperable SBAS aviation standards that describe the principles and practices of international air navigation.

The ICAO SARPs foster the planning and development of international air transport systems that support SBAS interoperability and SBAS avionics technology interchangeability. The SARPs establish that the introduction of new GNSS navigation elements should include evaluation of the navigation systems with respect to four essential criteria:

  • Accuracy
  • Integrity (including time-to-alert)
  • Service continuity
  • Availability

These specific criteria define the standards for Approach with Vertical guidance (APV), the ICAO term for an SBAS approach classification that allows the use of stabilized descent using vertical guidance.

The Interoperability Working Group (IWG), made up of SBAS providers around the world, provides the forum to allow the coordinated development of interoperable SBAS systems andcommon aircraft avionics receiver technology that enable aircraft to easily transition from one SBAS system to the next.

As technology evolves both groups provide guidance and planning objectives to maintain seamless global operations as systems expand, are enhanced, or as new SBAS systems are implemented.

This answer is highly dependent upon your specific equipment and installation. Presently GAGAN is designed to provide APV 1.0 approach for landing and RNP 0.1 for enroute operations
 

SBAS is designed to enable users to rely on GNSS navigation data for all phases of flight, from en route through category I approach for all qualified airports within an SBAS coverage area.

SBAS provides a capability to conduct vertically guided approaches to non-instrumented runways, providing significant improvement to operational safety that was previously un-available.

SBAS is not sensitive to temperature fluctuations and has no barometric / temperature limitations. When using Barometric Vertical Navigation (BARO VNAV) a minimum temperature limitation is published for each procedure for which BARO-VNAV minimums are published. This temperature represents the airport temperature below which the use of BARO-VNAV is not authorized to the LNAV/VNAV DA. The pronounced effect of cold temperatures on BARO-VNAV operations means that the approach may not be flown at all using BARO-VNAV when the temperature is below -20� Celsius.
SBAS is an enabler for FAA Next Generation Transportation System (NEXTGEN) and European Single European Sky Air Traffic Management Research (SESAR).
SBAS provides benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads.

Other benefits of an SBAS are:

En Route Capability 
SBAS operational criteria include integrity assurance and eliminate the need for GNSS avionics Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) checks. This feature means that SBAS is considered a primary Navigation system. GNSS navigation alone requires RAIM checks and is considered a supplementary navigation system.
The very high resolution point-in-space of SBAS supports flexibility to design more efficient airspace and instrument procedures SBAS technology provides the opportunity to cover very large areas of airspace and areas formerly un-served by navigation aids and is an enabler of ICAO Performance Based Navigation (PBN). The ICAO PBN manual provides initiative for development of en route navigation guidance. Two key components of PBN are Area Navigation (RNAV) and RNP. Each includes lateral navigation standards for performance, functionality and capability. 
These standards allow the flexibility to design more efficient airspace and instrument procedures that collectively improve safety, access, capacity and efficiency. Direct routes minimize track dispersion and environmental impacts by reducing fuel use and pollution. 
By eliminating the need for airways to be tied to ground-based navigation aids, SBAS-equipped aircraft gain the flexibility and benefit of point-to-point operations. SBAS satisfies PBN based equipment requirements for the new, more direct en route flight options of ‘T’ and ‘Q’ routes.

  1. T-Route: an RNAV route used in low-altitude airspace operating below 18,000 feet.
  2. Q-Route: an RNAV route used in high-altitude airspace (18,000 feet ? 45,000 ��� feet).

Immediate, tangible benefits have been noted. Controller/pilot transmissions are reduced by over 30%. There is a significant reduction in track dispersion and the more efficient procedure designs reduce flight distances resulting in fuel savings for the operators. Learn more about T-routes, Q-routes, and LPVs at http://www.faa.gov/nextgen/flashmap/

Approach Capability 
SBAS provides the vertical guidance necessary for Localizer Precision Vertical Guidance (LPV) defined approaches. SBAS LPV-200 approaches are equivalent to Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS) approaches for runway ends qualified for Category I ILS. For non-qualifying runway ends, SBAS supports a Localizer Precision (LP) non-precision approach. These SBAS supported approaches do not require the installation and maintenance of any landing system navigation aids.

LPVs are operationally equivalent to a Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS), but are more economical. LPV specifications are developed within the definition of ICAO APV’s and add increased capability, flexibility, and in many cases, more cost-effective navigation options than legacy ground-based navigation aids. SBAS use will become increasingly more vital as older legacy equipment (such as NDB, VOR, or ILS) is decommissioned and taken out of service.
SBAS also provides for immunity to improper setting of QNH on the aircraft. Additionally, SBAS provides vertical guidance via GNSS constellation augmentation, SBAS supported.
Finally, SBAS provides for positive guidance (RNP 0.3) across the SBAS service volume.

Terminal 
SBAS supports Trajectory Based Operations (TBO) Continuous Descent Approach (CDA) supporting significant fuel savings for operators.

SBAS Terminal operations offer a significant reduction in track dispersions.

There are three SBAS networks in operation today, the European Geostationary Navigation Overlay Service (EGNOS), the Multifunctional Transport Satellite (MTSAT) Satellite Augmentation System (MSAS) and the United States (US) Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS), providing coverage geographically to most of Europe, Asia-Pacific and North America. Both India’s GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) and the Russian System of Differential Correction and Monitoring (SDCM) are in development that will provide coverage to Indo-Asia and Euro-Asia. Completion of all five systems will provide near total coverage of the northern hemisphere for approach operations and near worldwide coverage for enroute, terminal and non-precision approach operations.

WAAS - The U.S. WAAS supports over 5461 ends of runways and hundreds of heliport/helipads in the U.S. National Airspace System (NAS). As of May 30, 2013, the WAAS supports:

  1. 3,123 Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance (LPV) procedures.
  2. 5,663 Lateral Navigation (LNAV) procedures.
  3. 3,003 LNAV / Vertical Navigation (VNAV) procedures published.
  4. 2,046 LPVs published to non-ILS runways.
  5. 421 Localizer Performance (LP) procedures.

There are now more than twice the numbers of WAAS-enabled LPV procedures as there are Category I ILS approaches.

The FAA is currently in Phase III of a four-phase WAAS program life cycle. WAAS has completed the operational integration of a new Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellite (Inmarsat 4F3-PRN 133). Future Phase III improvements underway include technology refresh and algorithmic improvements to increase service availability.

The U.S. SBAS expansion into Canada and Mexico was achieved with the integration of nine international wide-area reference stations (WRS) into the WAAS network. As of May 2013 Canada has published 147 LPVs serving 81 Airports with plans for more to follow. Mexico has announced plans to publish LPV procedures in the near future.

EGNOS - The first pan-European satellite navigation system. EGNOS Open Service was declared on October 1st 2009, supporting multimodal applications in non-aviation domains. Later on March 2nd 2011, EGNOS Safety of Life (SoL) service was declared operational, enabling the publication of LPV procedures over Europe. As of May 2013, there are 137 procedures based on EGNOS across Europe, supporting LPV and APV Baro approach operations. Nowadays, the publication of LPV procedures is very active, increasing the number continuously. Implementation of LPV-200 Service Level is planned for 2015. Up-to-date information is available http://www.essp-sas.eu/.

MSAS ? Japan’s Satellite Based Augmentation System using their MTSAT satellites. MSAS was declared operational in 2007 and provide horizontal guidance within the MSAS service volume. MSAS supports En Route, Terminal and Non-Precision Approach operations.

GAGAN ?is being implemented in three phases by the Airport Authority of India with the help of the Indian Space ResearchOrganization’s (ISRO) technology and space support. GAGAN plans to deliver RNP 0.1 as the first deployment milestone. The certification process is in progress and is expected to be completed by end of 2013. The second milestone is Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV) 1.0 over 90% of the Indian landmass. The timeline for completion and certification of APV 1.0 is first quarter of 2014. It is applicable to safety-of-life operations, and meets the performance requirements of international civil aviation regulatory bodies.

GAGAN offers free enhanced satellite navigation signals over India which is ten times more precise than GPS. All application domains which use positioning and velocity information can benefit from this improved accuracy: all transport modes through the management of infrastructure and the provision of geo-localised information, logistics, precision agriculture, civil protection and emergency management, mapping and land registry, fisheries, energy, management of natural resources, mining, Earth sciences, meteorology, the modelling of climate change, environment, justice and law enforcement, border control, etc.

SDCM ? Russia’s SBAS styled overlay for either GLONASS or GPS. SDCM plans to provide both horizontal and vertical guidance.

Although SBAS providers guarantee adequate service provision only in their nominal service volumes, SBAS broadcast signals will be available anywhere in their respective GEO footprints. This fact, together with the fact that EGNOS/GAGAN/MSAS/WAAS intermediate regions are not covered by any other SBAS system, has fostered debate about the possibility of providing a minimum service level in the intermediate region by means of SBAS interoperability.

SBAS Reference Stations are deployed throughout the region of service at pre-surveyed locations to measure pseudo ranges and carrier phases on L1 and L2 frequencies from all visible satellites.
The reference stations send these measurements to SBAS Master Station, which calculate clock and ephemeris corrections for each GPS satellite monitored, ephemeris information for each GEO, and Ionosphere grid points (IGPs) at an altitude of 350km above the earth's surface.� 
In addition to the corrections, the Master Station calculate error bounds for Ionosphere corrections call grid Ionosphere vertical errors (GIVEs) at each IGP , and also combined error bounds for clock and ephemeris corrections for each visible satellite, called user differential range errors (UDREs)
The Master station sends these corrections and error bounds to the users through GEO communication satellites with a data rate of 250bits/s User avionics apply these corrections to their pseudo ranges obtained from GPS measurements, in order to improve the accuracy of their position estimates.� They also use the UDREs and GIVEs and other information to calculate error bounds on position error called the Vertical Protection Level (VPL) and Horizontal Protection Level (HPL).For the integrity of the system, these protection levels must bound the position errors with probability must bound the position errors with probability greater or equal to 0.9999999 in one hour for en-route through Non Precision Approach operations and for Precision Approach in 150 seconds.

 

GAGAN is the acronym for GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation. The GAGAN uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentations to the GPS standard positioning service(SPS) navigation signal. A network of precisely surveyed ground reference stations (INdianReference Stations ? INRES) is strategically positioned across the country to collect GPS satellite data. Using this information, the master control centre (INdian Master Control Centre ? INMCC) generates messages to correct any signal errors. These correction messages are then uplinked through (INdian Land Uplink Station ? INLUS) and broadcast through communication satellites (Geostationary) to receivers onboard aircraft using the same frequency as GPS. 

The GAGAN is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight, from en route through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume. GAGAN will also provide the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM). In addition, GAGAN will provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, and railroads

GNSS is an acronym for Global Navigation Satellite Systems. Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) allow users worldwide to pinpoint their locations or the locations of objects, other people and goods at any given moment.

Navigation satellites broadcast signals which are used by a receiver to determine precisely its position, velocity and time. Satellite navigation systems support an unlimited number of users.

The GPS, GLONASS and Galileo (future) are core constellation of satellites providing signals from space transmitting positioning and timing data. The GAGAN is an augmentation system which augments the GPS constellation by adding accuracy and integrity. This is achieved by sending corrections and integrity information for GPS satellites through geostationary satellites to its users in the pre-defined service volume.

RNP stands for “Required Navigational Performance.” It is a metric of system navigational capability. The Airports Authority of India is moving towards a performance-based national airspace system. In the future, your ability to fly in certain areas may be governed by ability to achieve precise navigational performance within specific tolerances. RNP 0.1 will be used for approaches, and it refers to 0.1 nautical mile accuracy. This accuracy may be achieved through various means (GPS, GAGAN, flight management system using automatic DME updates), but aircraft will be certified to a particular RNP. There are other requirements beyond accuracy that will be defined for each RNP operation before it is implemented.

Algorithmic improvements will increase service availability with improved modeling of ionospheric signal distortion. Because of the availability impacts due to ionospheric storms, SBAS providers are making plans to implement dual-frequency in order to increase SBAS availability and performance by direct mitigation of ionospheric signal delay using two civil frequencies.
Dual frequency extends coverage outside reference networks & allows LPV operation in equatorial areas because of its superior properties to mitigate ionospheric interference. Expanding SBAS networks into Southern Hemisphere would allow global coverage of land masses. A further benefit is improved robustness against unintentional interference.

Phase IV of WAAS will introduce Dual Frequency operation by 2018, taking advantage of new GPS satellites broadcasting the current L1 signal (1575.42 MHz) along with the new, civilian, L5 Safety of Life signal (1176.45 MHz). EGNOS version 3 will introduce Dual Frequency operation by 2020 and other SBAS systems are also planning its implementation.

With the use of L5, a dual-frequency SBAS avionics receiver could use the SBAS corrections message or generate its own ionospheric delay corrections by comparing the L1 and L5signals. Dual-frequency SBAS avionics receivers promise to provide greater accuracy and increased service availability.

Under the concept of Interoperability, methods for seamless transitions between SBAS service regions are being developed. This includes analysis for transitions between SBAS and RAIM, two SBAS regions and between SBAS and GBAS service areas.

There are also options being considered regarding inclusion of additional GNSS constellations in SBAS such as GLONASS, Galileo and BeiDou (COMPASS). Multiple constellations will allow SBAS avionics receiver manufacturers to develop Interchangeability. With interchangeability a given SBAS avionics receiver can select all satellites in view from any constellation and use the four best suited for an optimal navigational solution. Additional constellations allow even greater coverage with fewer stations.

SBAS operators are committed to deploy and maintain a sufficient number of GEO satellites to ensure availability requirements are met across each SBAS service volume.

SBAS deployments will continue to support legacy single frequency users by ensuring backward compatibility.
Every major avionics manufacturer is incorporating multi-constellation capable SBAS avionics products as flight-certified navigation solutions.

LPV-200 service is expected to be available world-wide with the development of dual frequency operation, extended network service areas and additional GNSS constellations.
 
 

 

With approved SBAS avionics installed; a pilot may plan to use any instrument approach authorized for use with SBAS avionics that meets ICAO aviation requirements as an alternative. The LNAV minima line must be used for planning purposes in case vertical guidance is not available. SBAS removes the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM) and fault detection andexclusion (FDE) prediction scenarios.
RAIM is a form of integrity monitoring performed within the avionics themselves. It ensures available GNSS satellite signals meet the integrity requirements for a given phase of flight. By comparing the pseudo range measurements of a number of GNSS satellites, the RAIM function can identify a GNSS satellite failure and issue an alert to the pilot. A minimum of five GNSS satellites is required to detect a bad satellite; at least six GNSS satellites are required to detect and exclude a bad satellite from the navigation solution if the SBAS Avionics receiver has an FDE RAIM algorithm. RAIM checks are a requirement for use of non SBAS avionics. 
 

SBAS Integrity is outlined by ICAO SARPs Appendix 10 and refers to the level of trust of the satellite navigation information received and the computed position. Integrity of a navigation system includes the ability to provide timely warnings if the information broadcast or that is computed could potentially create hazards. 
The ICAO SARPS specification for SBAS requires the system to detect errors in the GNSS or GEO network and notify users within a very small time constraint. Certifying that SBAS is safe for instrument flight rules (IFR) requires proving there is only an extremely small probability that an error exceeding the requirements for accuracy will go undetected. Specifically, the probability is less than 1�10-7, and is equal to no more than 3 seconds of bad data per year.

For safety reasons, within the specified time constraint, SBAS can do one of two actions: 
I. Provide a correction to the information that is detected as misleading. If SBAS is able to correct misleading information within the time constraint, there is no lapse in system integrity.

II. Notify the user not to use the information.

A network of precisely surveyed ground reference stations is strategically positioned across a geographic coverage region to collect Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) navigation data. Using this information, a System User Message is generated to either correct GNSS signal errors or provide notice to users of potential signal errors. These correction messages are then broadcast through specialized Navigation Transponders on GEO satellites via GNSS-like signals to an SBAS avionics receiver onboard service user aircraft.
 

LPV is the most desired APV approach. It is similar to LNAV/VNAV except it is much more precise (40m lateral limit), enables descent as low as 200-250 feet above the runway and can only be flown with an approved SBAS Avionics receiver. LPV approaches are operationally equivalent to the legacy instrument landing systems (ILS), but are more economical because no navigation infrastructure is required at the runway. There are over 2,327 LPV approaches in use today and the FAA is publishing over 500 new LPV approaches per year.

Localizer Performance (LP) is a recent non-precision approach (NPA) procedure that uses SBAS precision of LPV for lateral guidance and barometric altimeter for minimum descent altitude (MDA) guidance. These approaches are needed at runways where, due to obstacles or other infrastructure limitations, a vertically guided approach (LPV or LNAV/VNAV) cannot be published. LP approaches can only be flown by aircraft equipped with SBAS Avionics receivers. The MDA for the LP approach is expected to be nominally 300 to 400 feet above the runway.

LNAV / VNAV approaches use lateral guidance (556m lateral limit) from GPS and/or SBAS and vertical guidance provided by either the barometric altimeter or SBAS. Aircraft that don’t use SBAS for the vertical guidance portion must have a Baro-VNAV system, which are typically part of a flight management system (FMS). When the pilot flies an LNAV / VNAV approach, lateraland vertical guidance is provided to fly a controlled descent and a safer maneuver to the runway. The decision altitudes on these approaches are usually 350 feet above the runway.

GPS NPA (LNAV) refers to a Non-Precision Approach (NPA) procedure which uses GPS and/or SBAS for Lateral Navigation (LNAV). On an LNAV approach, the pilot flies the final approach lateral course, but does not receive vertical guidance for a controlled descent to the runway. Instead, when the aircraft reaches the final approach fix, the pilot descends to a minimum descent altitude using the barometric altimeter. LNAV approaches are less precise (556m lateral limit) and therefore usually do not allow the pilot to descend to as low an altitude above the runway. Typically, LNAV procedures achieve a minimum descent altitude (MDA) of 400 feet height above the runway.

An approved SBAS avionics receiver is certified for all of the lines of minima on the RNAV (GPS) approaches (LPV, LP, LNAV/VNAV, and LNAV).
 

Yes. An SBAS LPV approach is designed to provide performance comparable to a Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach. In fact, efforts undertaken by the FAA have demonstrated that an SBAS is capable of supporting Height Above Touchdown (HAT) heights down to 200 ft. The level of service provided by an SBAS is contingent on a number of factors:

  1. Environmental conditions based on geographic location.
  2. The number and density of ground monitoring stations.

The approach for monitoring and correcting system errors.

Although all SBAS are regional systems, the need to establish adequate co-operation/coordination among SBAS providers is commonly recognized so that their implementation becomes more effective and part of a seamless world-wide navigation system. ICAO SARPs Annex 10 and Aviation Standards support interoperability among SBAS service providers by:

  1. Seamless transition between SBAS Service Areas.

- Evaluating transitions between SBAS and RAIM along with transitions between two SBAS and between SBAS and GBAS.

  1. Common interpretation of Standards amongst SBAS Developers.

- Established a work plan for development of a definition document to support a dual-frequency, multi- constellation user.

  1. Currently Limited Global Coverage.

- Global coverage to be expanded with addition of GAGAN and SDCM. 
- Availability of worldwide LPV-200 service expected with addition of a second frequency, extended networks and additional GNSS constellations.

  1. Continued support to legacy single frequency users by ensuring backwards compatibility.

    SBAS IWG objectives established to support technical interoperability and cooperation: 
    Objective 1: Harmonize SBAS modernization plans. 
    Objective 2: Forum for discussion on SBAS standards. 
    Objective 3: Harmonize technical improvements for operation and user feedback. 
    Objective 4: Research and development cooperation on key SBAS technologies. 
    Objective 5: Support joint SBAS promotion.

GAGAN collects GPS data at the reference stations. The system is then be able to estimate the signal delay and error due to the ionosphere. This information is then passed to the user as a part of the GAGAN navigation message. In addition, ionospheric data is collected and archived by theGAGANTest Team for analysis of scintillation and range delay effects by experts in the ionospheric field.

No, the GAGAN message is broadcast on the same frequency as the GPS signal. You will just need a GAGAN -capable receiver provided your existing antenna is compatible with the GAGAN equipment. Your current system may be upgradeable. Please contact your manufacturer directly for information on availability, installation and price. 
 

Airports Authority of India currently provides several systems to support en-route and terminal area navigation, including non-precision approach. These include VOR with associated DME, NDBand GPS.

The operational benefits of GPS/GAGAN, especially increased routing flexibility and many more precision approaches, will motivate most operators of aircraft used extensively for IFR operations to equip with GPS/GAGAN in the five to six year period following the availability of services. At that point, the current ground based systems - VOR, DME, and ILS - will become back-up systems for these operators. Since most aircraft will be navigating using GPS/GAGAN, substantial reductions can then be made in the number of VOR/DME and ILS ground facilities. Maintaining the current VOR/DME system is expensive, thus, there is a considerable financial incentive to reduce the number of VOR/DME. As soon as GPS/GAGAN avionics are available, operators are anticipated to begin equipping with it to achieve the associated operational benefits and convenience.

The GAGAN, when operational is designed to achieve a performance level of APV 1.0 over the Indian land mass and RNP 0.1 over the oceanic region, within the Indian Flight Information Region (FIR).

Although all satellite-based augmentation systems (SBAS) are regional systems, it is important to ensure that they are compatible and that SBAS providers cooperate with each other and coordinate their actions.

In addition to GAGAN, three other regional systems of note exist:

WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System): The United States Federal Aviation Administration leads the development of WAAS, which covers the US and Canada.

MSAS (MTSAT Satellite-Based Augmentation System): The Japanese Civil Aviation Bureau is implementing the MSAS which will cover the Flight Instrument Rules region of Japan.

EGNOS:The European Geostationary Navigation Overlay Service (EGNOS) is Europe’s first venture into satellite navigation. It augments the positioning signals provided by the USA’s GPS global navigation satellite system and makes them suitable for safety critical applications such as flying aircraft or navigating ships through narrow channels.

Compatibility makes each system more effective and ensures that all the systems can be integrated into a seamless worldwide navigation network. Cooperation on SBAS is currently coordinated through the Interoperability Working Groups for GAGAN, MSAS, EGNOS and WAAS.

GAGAN will have two Indigenous Geostationary satellites broadcasting the SBAS signals. The satellites are identified as GSAT-8 with PRN ? 127 and GSAT-10 with PRN ? 128. There is a plan to have an in-orbit spare satellite also.
 

To fly an LNAV or LNAV/VNAV approach, you must have either (1) GAGAN avionics approved for LNAV/VNAV approaches, (2) a certified BARO-VNAV approach system with IFR-approved GPS, (3) a certified BARO-VNAV approach system with an IFR-approvedGAGAN, or (4) an RNP-0.1 certified system.

he GAGAN supplies two different sets of corrections: 1) corrected GPS parameters (position, clock etc.) and 2) Ionospheric parameters. The first set of corrections is user position independent - they apply to all users located within the GAGAN service area. The second set of corrections is area specific. GAGAN supplies correction parameters for a number of points (organized in a grid pattern) across the GAGAN service area. The user receiver computes ionospheric corrections for the received GPS signals based on algorithms which use the appropriate grid points for where the user is located. Further, the appropriate grid points may differ for each GPS satellite received and process by the user receiver as the GPS satellites are located at various positions in the sky relative to the user. The combination of the two sets of corrections allows for significantly increased user position accuracy and confidence anywhere in the GAGAN service area.

The GAGAN signal is intended for civilian safety of life and other navigation applications. The GAGAN signal is not encrypted. The signal may be affected by local RF interferences like the GPS signals.

GAGAN is extremely useful for vehicle navigation, as it increases accuracy from 10-12 meters with GPS alone, to 1-2 meters horizontal. This increase in accuracy can mean knowing which side of the highway a vehicle is on, lane determination, specific vehicle location, or where an exit is early enough so that you can make the turn before the exit is passed. Because of this, In USA WAAS is becoming more and more popular for use in vehicles. In fact, public safety departments including police, fire, rescue, and state transportation authorities are already using WAAS. CALTRANS has incorporated WAAS into the receivers used to layout construction and improvements of highways. Also, a number of vehicular navigation services are investigating WAAS for the future. OnStar will be incorporating WAAS into 2008 model year GM vehicles. OnStar provides notification of vehicle location to a given GPS location within 15 seconds of airbag deployment. The addition of WAAS provides greater accuracy in the location determination and contributes to this life saving benefit. It has provided vehicle tracking for stolen as well as carjacked vehicles and led to the recovery of infants in cars that have been carjacked. Also, DaimlerChrysler has tested WAAS as a part of an intelligent transportation system in development, and found it to be the best option to provide the accuracy needed for their utilization.

The cost to equip an aircraft with a GPS TSO C129A receiver varies depending on the type of the receiver, the degree of difficulty of the installation, the sophistication of the aircraft and existing avionics, and the level of services desired. Also, the cost of equipping will vary depending on whether GPS is used as a stand-alone system or as part of a Flight Management System (FMS). Most dealers provide a package price when they sell a receiver. This package includes installation and airworthiness inspection, as well as the actual equipment. These packages can range anywhere from approximately $3,000 (US) for a basic general aviation IFR GPS receiver installation/certification, to $10,000 (US) for a more sophisticated GPS receiver installation/certification on a commercial aircraft. When comparing prices of GPS avionics versus existing ground-based avionics, one must consider that one GPS receiver will eventually replace all avionics associated with these other ground navigation aids (VOR/DME, NDB, and Category I ILS).

APV is the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) term for an approach with vertical guidance, and it refers to specific ICAO criteria adopted in May 2000. This approach classification allows the use of stabilized descent using vertical guidance without the accuracy required for traditional precision approach procedures. The US has developed criteria for lateral/vertical navigation (LNAV/VNAV) and LPV approach procedures that meet this approach classification. The LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches provide guidance in both the lateral and vertical planes.

The ICAO uses metrics in the process of determining the safety of operations. Two nines would equate to 99%, or one occurrence in 100. Five nines would be .99999, or one occurrence in 100,000.

No. Overlay approaches can use GPS instead of the primary designated navigational aid, but the approach must be designated for GPS and be in the current aircraft database. For example, it must say “VOR or GPS RWY 16.” You cannot just use GPS in lieu of VOR, Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) or other navigational source naming the approach. You can, however, use GPS to determine waypoints during the approach.

It should cost about the same to develop and test approach procedures regardless of the type of navigation aid used for the approach. Even though the approach path design costs are basically the same for GPS and ILS/MLS, the real cost benefits of using GPS lie in the associated user equipment costs and the expected cost benefits from reduced flight times and fuel consumption possible with the use of GPS/GAGAN. In addition, operations and maintenance costs of ground-based systems will be significantly reduced or eliminated when GPS approaches are approved for use in the Indian Airspace.

The main difference is that Visual Flight Rules (VFR) receivers do not have a ICAO-approved method for detecting satellite failures. Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) receivers have a feature known as Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) which can detect bad satellite signals and remove them from the position calculations. IFR receivers usually cost more than VFR receivers due to this advanced capability.

Certified GPS receivers have been available since 1993 for use of the basic GPS system. The USA is working with industry and user groups through the RTCA to insure that WAAS and GBAS avionics are being developed that are both cost effective and user friendly

There should not be any interruption of service when GAGAN system changeover will take place from Ground Based Navigation System. There will be a period of parallel operation between the two systems before changeover. Also both the systems can co-exist.

The introduction of the second civilian frequency (L5) for GPS may change the way the GPS measurement signals getting processed to generate the corrections and integrity information in the master control center. This may lead to a new SBAS message structure. The change has to evolve after the availability of L5 signals for the entire GPS constellation.

GAGAN provides the Ionosphere, Satellite Clock and Satellite Ephemeris (ICE) corrections to the users in its coverage area. These corrections are generated by using the GPS measurement data collected from the Reference stations, hence there may be occasions where the GAGAN accuracy may be less than that of GPS due to some local phenomena not observed by the reference stations. But the GAGAN system ensures that all the users in its service volume are always protected within the integrity bounds for a particular level of service. The integrity requirement as specified by ICAO is 1-2x10-7/app.

The WAAS / EGNOS signals will not give the intended accuracy and integrity in the GAGAN coverage area. This is because the Ionospheric Grid Points (IGP) serviced by WAAS/EGNOS are different from those required for GAGAN coverage area. Also, the GPS satellites visible in the GAGAN coverage will be different from those visible for WAAS/EGNOS. But there will be common area of coverage between the different systems for seamless navigation.

The GAGAN Network Time (GNT) will be steered to within 50ns from GPS Time and within 20ns from UTC as per the ICAO specifications. Hence GAGAN can provide an accurate time reference within its specifications.

The GAGAN service area can be extended within the GAGAN coverage area by adding more reference stations. The additional reference stations will be able to collect the GPS measurement data from those areas and can be used for generating accurate Ionosphere and Satellite corrections and integrity parameters

There should not be any interruption of service when GAGAN system changeover will take place from Ground Based Navigation System. There will be a period of parallel operation between the two systems before changeover. Also both the systems can co-exist

The GAGAN coverage area is given in the figure (Fig1.0), with the Indian Geostationary satellites. The Fig1.1 gives the Indian Flight Information Region(FIR), for which the service is planned. The actual service area can be finalized only after the Signal-in-Space(SIS) availability and the analysis the data collected.

The implementation of the Final operational phase (FOP) was completed in June 2013. All Ground based elements are installed, integrated, tested and in operation with two space segments GSAT-8 (PRN-127) and GSAT-10 (PRN-128).The GAGAN certification (system, facilities and service approval) are in progressand expected to be certified for RNP 0.1 operations in Sep/Oct 2013and subsequently system will be ready for APV 1.0 operations by March 2014.

GAGAN is planned to be operating an open service transmission mode complying with RTCA specifications and ICAO SARPS.

To ensure global compatibility in civil aviation, the use of radio navigation aids is governed by the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs). One of the most important requirements was to ensure that any properly equipped aircraft could benefit from these regional systems by installing a single receiver. RTCA Inc has developed the Minimum Operational Performance Standards (MOPS) for SBAS equipment. The main reference document is DO229 version C/D. This document describes the standards for all GAGAN/EGNOS/WAAS/MSAS receivers. Receivers complying with these requirements, as determined by the appropriate Technical Standard Order (TSO) provide full GAGAN/EGNOS/WAAS/MSAS compatibility. In its full operational configuration, GAGAN is compliant with the RTCA specifications and the ICAO SARPs for use in civil aviation.

An MMR is a multi-mode receiver. It would receive the basic GPS signal and the GAGAN signal. It may also include the Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) signal at a future date. It may also receive VHF, UHF, VOR or other signals.